On John 20:28: "My Lord and my God!"

This is a most interesting verse.

In John 20:28 Thomas addresses Jesus directly: "Thomas answered him, 'My Lord and My God!"

Thomas's phrase, "My Lord and My God" was, in the Greek, ho kurios mou kai ho theos mou. This matters.

This Greek phrase has direct parallels in other Greek Scriptures, which have an obvious relevance. Here is an example from the Greek New Testament and from the Greek Old Testament in that order.

Revelation 4:11:

"You are worthy, our Lord and God,

(Greek = ho kurios kai ho theos hemon)

to receive glory and honour and power, for you created all things, and by your will they existed and were created."

And:

Psalm 35:23 (Old Greek – LXX - version) addressing Yahweh:

"Wake up! Bestir yourself for my defence, for my cause, my God and my Lord!"

(Greek = ho theos mou kai ho kyrios mou)

 

That is, as you can see, two nouns with two definite articles, both in the first verse above and in the second verse. Each time, you can see, it’s addressing one God. Here it is again:

Rev 4:11:

“The Lord and the God of us”

Psalm 35:23:

“The God of me and the Lord of me”

And here’s John 20:28:

“The Lord of me and the God of me”

 

Let’s just see again the Greek words in sequence:

Rev 4:11:

ho kurios kai ho theos hemon

Psalm 35:23:

ho theos mou kai ho kyrios mou

And John 20:28:

ho kurios mou kai ho theos mou

It’s the exact same Greek words used, with the order swapped round.

With the exception that, for the possessive, you can see the Greek uses either ‘our’ or ‘my, 'hemon' or 'mou.' 

A natural and unforced reading is that Thomas’ words are like the words of the psalm and Revelation, words that are in the same grammatical pattern as Thomas’ words. Thomas identifies Jesus as God, using the same form of words as the psalm and Revelation.

In Psalm 35 the words are plainly about the Lord God Yahweh, and in John 20:28 corresponding words are given in direct reply to Jesus.

The word 'answered' (Greek = apekrithe) in John 20:28 has the same meaning here as in the previous chapter at 19:11 and 19:22, so this is nothing but an answer addressed to Jesus personally. The whole of Thomas' answer to Jesus is: 'My Lord and my God'. That's all Thomas says, and it is his answer directed to Jesus alone. He is calling Jesus “My Lord and my God.” Jesus is Thomas’ God. Just how the words are used in the other verses to denote God.

That is, the person addressed is God himself in Psalm 35:23 and Revelation 4:11. Clearly, using these Scripture words to someone who is not God would be idolatry or blasphemy. Any deviation from that would deserve rebuke from anyone present, not the affirmative response Jesus gives to Thomas' answer.

Only Yahweh was ever addressed in such words as these, as in Psalm 35:23 (Septuagint) and Revelation 4:11. In that light, the direct parallel in John 20:28 is an important revelation of Jesus' divinity. It is the climax of John's gospel, as I explain in another post here.

It is worth adding that the word ‘the’ is left out in English translation to make better English. But it is a Greek form of the vocative: ‘vocative’ just means the speaker is giving God a clear ‘I am talking to you’ turn of phrase. We know it's a vocative here because the text literally says, "Thomas answered him."

Similarly, the psalmist is saying it - with the obvious vocative - to Yahweh. Thus: ‘My God and Lord, bestir yourself for my defence.’ And that is just how you would have read the Psalmist’s words. This lesson about the vocative carries over to John 20:28.

Finally, I say more about how John 20:28 fits in the wider context of John’s Gospel in another post here.