Saturday, 16 December 2023

What goes for Jesus: does it go for the Archangel Michael or not?

 

I have said in an earlier post why in some ways I have admiration for those who call themselves one of  Jehovah’s witnesses. So this time, rather than repeat myself, I'll get straight to the problem.

When I have listened to witnesses talk about their belief that Jesus is actually the Archangel Michael - that is what Jehovah's witnesses believe - I find it leaves problems unsolved.

The following problem is particularly key. Jesus is in a very exalted position in Christian scripture. If the Kingdom Halls' beliefs are correct, it should be possible to replace the word ‘Jesus’ with the word ‘Angel’ in scripture verses, without doing damage to the sense of it. You may never have thought of trying it. But it's a good way to test this. 

Let’s test it then as an exercise just for this one post only. I’ll try substituting the word ‘Angel’ for ‘Jesus’ or for ‘Christ’ in a series of New Testament verses about Jesus below. See how it sounds to you. Especially if you are a believer, how does this strike your spiritual sensibilities?

 

To start with, ‘the body of Christ’ in Ephesians 4:12 would be ‘the body of the Angel.’ You get the idea now. This would be what you get: "to knit God's holy people together for the work of service to build up the body of THE ANGEL". My question: how does this unusual statement strike you? And why believe you are the body of an angel?

 

And Ephesians 5:30-32? - "we are parts of the ANGEL's body... the two become one flesh. This mystery has great significance, but I am applying it to the ANGEL and the church". My question: why would you want to be one flesh with an angel?

 

Or Philippians 2? - “at the name of THE ANGEL every knee shall bow and every tongue confess that THE ANGEL is Lord”. My question to believers: do you bow to angels? (Have you read Revelation?)

 

Or Ephesians 5:19-20? - “sing and make melody in your heart to THE ANGEL”.  My question: why ever practice such devotions to an angel?

 

Or 1 Peter 3:15? - "sanctify THE ANGEL as Lord in your hearts". My question: why practice such devotions to an angel? Surely that is ill-judged religion.

 

How about Revelation 5:13? - "to the ANGEL be praise and honour and glory and power, for ever and ever!" My question: why ever practice such vocal devotion and adoration to an angel?

 

Or 2 Thessalonians 1:12 - ‘That the name of THE ANGEL may be glorified in you’. My question: Who should such honour really be given to?

 

Or how about God's purposes, revealed in John 5:23? - "that all may honour the ANGEL just as they honour the Father." My question: why give to an angel honour on a par to the God the Father? How is that ever true religion?

 

Or Galatians 3:29? - "simply by being the ANGEL's, you are the progeny of Abraham". My question: do you agree that this is out of place, bizarre, and inappropriate?

 

Or Matthew 28:19? - "baptise them in the name of the Father and of the ANGEL and of the Holy Spirit". My question: would you ever baptise people in the name of an angel?

 

Or Colossians 3:16? - "whatever you say or do, let it be in the name of THE ANGEL". My question: why ever put an angel at the centre of your religious practices?

 

Or 1 Peter 2:3 - 'ye have tasted, that the ANGEL is sweet'. My question: why would you ever taste an angel?

 

Or Philippians 3:8? - "For THE ANGEL's sake, I have suffered the loss of all things, and I regard them as rubbish, in order that I may gain THE ANGEL". My question: why would anyone ever do that for an angel?


Or Romans 16:7? - "my kinsmen and fellow-prisoners, who were in THE ANGEL before me". That would be bizarre.


Or Colossians 1:15? - "THE ANGEL is the image of the unseen God". That would be incorrect theology by any stretch of the imagination.


Or Romans 14:18? - "It is the person who serves THE ANGEL in these things that will be approved by God". That would be deeply questionable.


How about, ‘there is one mediator between God and man, the ANGEL Jesus Christ’. These are precisely the sorts of things the New Testament does not say.


How about Acts 7:59? – “And they went on casting stones at Stephen as he made appeal and said: “Oh ANGEL, receive my spirit.”” Pretty bad, isn’t it?

 


My question then: why would anyone ever want to practice a religion revolving like this around an angel? It is surely misplaced to even think it.


Endnote

As shocked as I may feel about all this, one has to understand that Jehovah's Witnesses actually believe that they represent one greater than Jesus. 

They therefore believe that in their hierarchy, they represent a higher position by proxy, whereas Jesus represents a lower position, They literally describe Jesus as "inferior." 

That is, they think they represent someone superior (Jehovah). (Jehovah "superior," Jesus "inferior." That's their mantra.) 

This helps to explain why some Jehovah's Witnesses are keen to say that Jehovah is Almighty and Jesus is not. They don't consider themselves to be representatives of the "inferior" Jesus. They consider themselves to be representatives of Jesus' superior. This makes me feel quite queasy. 

As though they think that their Michael-Jesus is on one side of the equation whilst they are on the better side of the equation. 

It may well make them insensitive to how shocking it sounds to orthodox Christians. But when the Jehovah's Witnesses relegate Jesus to being an angel (archangel) and "inferior," all of this is going on in the minds of their organisation. However, ordinary JW members have probably never felt free to do the kind of analysis I have done above. 

(If you were to wonder how that reconciles with representing the "body of Christ", it doesn't have to, for Jehovah's Witnesses generally, as they reserve "body of Christ" for their "144,000." Which means they don't have to think through being the body of Christ.) 

 


The Jehovah's Witnesses 'two gods' conundrum

 

I’ve long been fascinated by a conundrum in the beliefs of those who say they are one of Jehovah’s Witnesses. I’ve never seen a satisfactory solution to my question.

It will reveal the problem of believing in two gods, following two gods, adoring two gods, singing to two gods, and being saved by two gods. This is not normal Christianity.

Now I just want to say that I admire them in some tangible respects. If they were my next-door neighbours, I would feel confident that I had honest well-behaved neighbours whom I could trust. And I actually admire how they try not to be swept to and fro by the ever-changing culture of the fast-changing modern world, even if I don’t necessarily agree on their stances sometimes. And insofar as there is a genuine appetite for reading the Bible, I admire that too. Indeed, there is inevitably common ground with the mainstream of Bible-reading Christians, even if the narrative they tell themselves as a group is that this is not so. Even if they tell themselves that they stand in opposition to mainstream Christianity. I always like to acknowledge common ground.

 

Recognising there's a problem

This conundrum, though. It’s a belief and practice thing. 

In their NWT translation, their John 1:1 says "with God... was a god." In total, how many gods does one count there? 

I know my readers are very capable to answer this. If a version says "with God... was a god," how many gods do you count in total? 

A total of two gods, clearly. It should be easy for anyone to give the total in a single word.

Their version of the whole verse reads: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was a god." So to reframe the question: according to that, how many gods in total in the beginning? It has to be two. There would surely be no satisfactory way to argue for translating the verse that way and then deny that the count is, obviously two.

Some of form of avoiding saying 'two' will typically arise though. A Jehovah's Witness will respond that these are gods in different senses. But as a matter of simple addition, it's a statement of some kind of two gods, and that's what their John's Gospel begins with. It's an emphatic beginning to his Gospel, so the way it's translated matters. Two gods in complete harmony, perhaps, but two gods to be counted in that translation. 

That is, they believe Jesus is rightfully called a god, in some sense, and in a different sense from God the Father. Sometimes they will qualify them as a 'mighty god' and 'almighty God' but that reinforces that their John 1:1 has a total of two gods.

I rather hoped for some frankness in conversation over this, when I have discussed it, and one time, an answer was given back to me rather cleverly, thus:

 "One God.

  One god."

Spot the different case 'G' and 'g'? Clearly willing to delineate a difference, but not willing to use the word 'two.' We need to understand why. I could have waited all day and the plain answer "two gods" wasn't going to be given back to me. That there's a problem with the answer should already be becoming apparent. Further enquiry saw something of a smokescreen appear.


Smokescreen of gods

I was given a standard Jehovah's Witness reply: that the word 'god' or 'gods' is applied to various beings in the Bible, be it angels, kings and rulers, even Satan, and, indeed, God. Words all clumped together as if that were enough to throw me off my line of questioning. It's not enough. There are various categories of biblical so-called '#gods,' but Jehovah's Witnesses, fairly conventionally, don't believe that any of them is like YHWH God in his divinity. In principle anyway,  

Clumping all that together under the category 'gods' is therefore just obscuring their cosmology behind a cloud of words. And here's the thing: depending who is the subject - Jesus or some - called gods - these identities mean incomparably different things for different 'gods' to Jehovah's Witnesses. Through one of them, and only one of them, they believe creation was made: Jesus. And basically, they believe he was pre-existent before the creation of the cosmos. They believe he is a pre-existent divine heavenly being, unlike ordinary men or anything else. An incomparably different meaning from the other categories of 'gods' so trying to explain away that you can count two gods in their version of John 1:1 doesn't work. 

They believe both of them are unique, pre-existent, divine, heavenly beings with supernatural power on the cosmic universe-creating level. And they don't believe anyone or anything else is in that complex category. It is ticking so many boxes on the 'god-like characteristics indicator' that it is really unpersuasive to try to disqualify this from being a two-god system, e.g. by invoking some broader banner of 'gods' (such as men and angels). The significance of Jesus being called theos in John 1:1 is of a totally different kind of order.

There are only two gods they exercise faith in, only two gods they are following, only two gods they give adoration to, only two gods in heaven they sing to, only two gods they are being saved by. Mentioning other 'gods' may throw up clouds of smoke but we can still see what lies behind.

They are still left with two unique gods, despite the smokescreen. And that comes of splitting Jesus and the Father apart into two completely separate beings like two private individuals, which is the effect of saying "with God... was a god." 

Regardless how many contrasting categories of gods there may be, their John 1:1 is evidently a two god beginning, a two god creation, etc. Two unique, pre-existent, divine, heavenly beings prior to anything else. Two at the beginning, two at creation. Two contrasting gods of different kinds who are the two unique pre-existent divine heavenly beings, both supernaturally able on a cosmic universe-creating level. Unlike anything else that might bear the title 'gods.'

Sometimes, they will go just about as far as saying that Jesus is 'mighty god' and God the Father is 'almighty God.' That is still a total of two gods. If you call them different things, it is still two gods. That is, it's effectively exercising faith in both an almighty god and a mighty god. So, with their two gods of John 1:1 ("with God... was a god") whom they call Almighty God and mighty god respectively, it's two GODS to exercise faith in, two GODS to follow, two GODS to honour, two GODS to be saved by. It's very unlikely that John meant to start his gospel with two gods.

I have tried walking through this with Jehovah's Witnesses, and despite everything above, was given the stubborn answer on one occasion: "God’s anointed messiah was/is called god, as were other human beings, because they were sent by God and represented God on earth." So, feeling like this was just going round in circles, I simply answered that that's not a persuasive description of their faith, because I know they don't believe Jesus was 'a man' in the beginning and at creation, because they actually believe he was a divine heavenly being at that time. Given that they believe that in the beginning he was the pre-existent divine heavenly being through whom creation was made, referring to other 'gods' is a moot point. It's a two god creation with a higher heavenly being and a lower one. There are precedents for this kind of religion, as I will mention.

Let's move on to practical effects.


Following two gods

If you disconnect Jesus from the Father and split then apart into two separate beings, what practical implications does this have for worship? Let's turn to that now.

Well it means being believers in a second god (to deal with John 1:12). So that means believing in two gods.

Jehovah's Witnesses sing a song of praise to a heavenly Jesus \('Hail, Creation's Firstborn!') who they believe was their unique pre-existent  second divine heavenly being, with supernatural power on a cosmic universe-creating level. I'd love to see how a secular anthropologist could be persuaded that this is not a two god religion. That is, if these are split into two separate heavenly beings, that's the problem. Some Witnesses have said to me that "with God... was a god" is not two gods, but that's totally implausible. They have also referred to the same as 'Almighty God' and 'mighty god' and still said that's not two gods, but that's totally implausible.

As well as all this, do Jehovah’s witnesses today follow and bow the knee to two gods in some sense? I’m not even particularly asking if they worship them both. Just whether they today follow and bow the knee to two gods. 

Another of Jehovah’s Witnesses once wrote to me that he follows ‘one true God Jehovah the creator’, and that he follows ‘a created god, in essence, a lesser god, Jesus.’

Sadly, we lost contact many years ago. But clearly, he meant, in a carefully worded statement that he follows two gods, a greater and a lesser god, as he sees it. I admire him for his honesty. He said he worships only the former, not the latter, but he follows both gods. Now, this will sound odd to a mainstream Christian to whom the idea of this being two separate gods is very unorthodox. As I say, I asked how many gods he follows, and he gave me a frank answer - two. That’s a Jehovah’s witnesses position.

Let’s consider this.

 

Bowing the knee in adoration

Jehovah’s witnesses clarify what they mean about Jesus being ‘a lesser god’ typically by saying Jesus is an ‘angel,’ specifically the Archangel Michael, extending the idea of an ‘angel’ being in some sense ‘divine,’ a god. The words divine and god to have a rather wide semantic range. We can all acknowledge that as common ground. 

Sometimes they spread the net by referring to human 'gods,' using a pretty rare biblical phrase. But they especially have in mind that Jesus is the Archangel Michael. (In another post, I ask what happens if you consider that Jesus is the Archangel Michael.)

So it helps to look at scripture.

"To him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb

be praise and honour and glory and power,

for ever and ever!"

(Revelation 5:13)

This passage of Scripture pictures bowing the knee to Jesus the lamb in adoration. (Effectively bowing the knee to two 'gods' in their view.)

Whether one chooses to call it worship or not (there are different Greek words for different kinds of religious reverence if you want to be picky), here’s the thing. Whether one chooses to call it worship or not, this scripture pictures a true Christian practice of bowing the knee in adoration to Jesus. We could illustrate the same from other scriptures.

It is clear, and the man who was writing to me didn’t dispute this, it is acceptable to Jehovah’s Witnesses to give the following adoration to an angel.

""To him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb

be praise and honour and glory and power,

for ever and ever!"

(Revelation 5:13)

It ought to strike any Christian as problematic to bow the knee in vocal adoration to an angel. That is, this problematic meaning: “to the angel be praise and honour and glory and power, for ever and ever." It’s just not Christian.

Jehovah’s witnesses deny ‘worshipping’ Jesus in the deepest religious sense. They tend to refer to this bowing the knee by the English word ‘obeisance’. (Translating the Greek word proskuneo.) That is, all the same, still surely problematic. Consider. What would the angel who objected to receiving obeisance in Rev 19:9 and 22:9 have said, if he saw a believer offering this adoration to an angel, saying effectively "to the angel be praise and honour and glory and power, for ever and ever" ? The angel in Rev 19:9 and 22:9 was forbidding of giving him adoration or bowing the knee to him. This really is a problem. I find it difficult to understand how any Christian would think it acceptable to offer such vocal adoration as seen for Jesus in Rev 5:13 to an angel. But that’s a Jehovah’s witnesses position.

 

Two saviours

This compounds difficulties elsewhere. I could demonstrate this with many texts but here is just one.

 

OT - ‘I, even I, am the Lord [Yahweh]; and beside me there is no saviour.’ (KJV Isaiah 43:11)

NT – ‘the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ’ (KJV 2 Peter 3:18)

 

According to Isaiah there is no saviour but Yahweh. By calling the saviour Jesus, and making Yahweh and Jesus into two separate gods, then Jehovah’s witnesses do believe in two saviours. To be clear: you can't make out they are two gods and not two saviours - that would be sophistry. No matter how much these would be 'two gods' in harmony. Their belief in two separate gods gets them into problems like this: two separate saviours. I could illustrate the same mess with many other texts.

So this all means believing in two gods, following two gods, adoring two gods, honouring two gods, singing to two gods, and being saved by two gods. This is not normal Christianity.


Polytheism

Now bravely, the man writing to me denied that his belief in a higher god and a lesser god, following and adoring both as two saviours, adds up to polytheism. But denying that doesn't wash. Not only is it polytheism but curiously it fits Plato's ancient Greek pagan model of two gods especially well. Plato believed in a higher god of all goodness and a lesser god involved with physical creation. The philosopher Plato would approve. But would Jesus?

 

Isaiah’s Yahweh: ‘there is no God beside me’

The right thing to do next is to look at a longer Bible passage.

The Kingdom Hall view is effectively that the is one higher creator saviour God, and one lesser sub-creator sub-saviour sub-god.

Isaiah chapters 43-44 have a one-God polemic. He has a worldview in which there is only one God and all other gods are false gods. Isaiah never uses the word 'god' of angels. Given the 'one God' message which Isaiah is shouting from the roof-tops, that is unsurprising; it would have undermined Isaiah’s impact if he had started adding footnotes about other scriptural uses of the word 'god'.

Isaiah conveys his clear distinction between the one true God and man-made false gods. It is in this context that Isaiah's fiercely monotheistic statements are found: there is only one God, one creator, one saviour. That is what Isaiah is trumpeting.

Those from Kingdom Halls read Isaiah through the lens of other books in such a way that it really undercuts Isaiah’s polemic. They want to prise open Isaiah's 'one-God' polemic to squeeze in other biblical books' inferior angelic 'gods.’ But that's not the way to read Isiah. 

Reading other books, we can accommodate that Yahweh is uniquely pre-eminent over angelic 'gods'. This is something Isaiah could have said, but it would have struck an awkward note with his 'one God' polemic. And we should not overwrite other books onto Isaiah so as to say that God did sub-contract creation and salvation. Isaiah doesn't say that. If we try to make Isaiah say that there is an angelic 'god' beside him, that’s a problem because Isaiah says there isn’t any god beside him.

Isaiah does not have 'angelic gods'; and his one-God polemic has to be heard in its own terms: Isaiah's stark one God, one creator, one saviour picture. Isaiah does not provide any system for including an angel at the centre of his picture of one God, one creator, one saviour. It is quite incongruous with Isaiah's picture to try to say there is one creator plus one sub-creator, and one saviour plus one sub-saviour. To try to posit that sort of picture is just not taking Isaiah seriously. 

That leaves the Christian question of how Jesus fits into Isaiah's one God, one creator, one saviour picture. We can't fit Jesus into Isaiah as a sub-contractor. That is ripping the heart out of Isaiah's message. And that is where I have to nail my colours to the mast as a mainstream Christian. Isaiah does not leave room to posit an angelic 'god' beside him in creation and salvation. Jesus must be something else if he is to fit into Isaiah's one-God picture of one creator and one saviour. And to the Trinitarian the mainstream fit works: Jesus in some sense embodies Yahweh.


Hebrews 1 and Psalm 102

The biblical emphasis on Jesus as co-creator is profound. In Hebrews 1:10, God the Father essentially calls Jesus 'Jehovah' and spells out that Jesus was his hands-on creator of the universe. I'll show how this is so when you cross-check the Old and New Testaments.

We know it's God speaking, because Hebrews 1:6 tells us so. In Hebrews 1:10, God the Father says this to Jesus: “In the beginning, Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands." If God says it, Jesus did it. God said to Jesus, the heavens are the work of your hands. 

And here's the second thing. Hebrews 1:10-12 here contains a quotation from Psalm 102:21-27. When you cross-check, you see this: that the 'Jehovah' of Psalm 102 is the Lord Jesus of Hebrews 1:10. That is, if you cross-check this with the Old Testament, you will see that it means: God said to Jehovah, the heavens are the work of your hands. Jesus is Jehovah-Jesus. Let's see the quote.

In Hebrews 1:10, it's God the Father quoted as speaking to Jesus like this: 

'He also says, “In the beginning, Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands."

 That is, "He" (God the Father) called Jesus "Lord." 

So what, you may say? Well, now compare Hebrews 1:10-12 with Psalm 102:21-27. It is clear that the latter passage is about the psalmist's God, and it's explicit that the psalmist's God is Jehovah. 

In the psalm, "you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands" is addressed to Jehovah.

In Hebrew 1:10, "you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands" is addressed to Jesus - by the voice of God the Father!

Read around it in Hebrews 1:10-12 and Psalm 102:21-27. You'll see a whole load of things are addressed to Jehovah-Jesus.


And so...

I could say more but will leave it there for a moment. I just don’t see a solution to the conundrum facing Jehovah’s Witnesses with their two-gods belief and practice.

As a final note, one has to understand that Jehovah's Witnesses actually believe that they represent one greater than Jesus. They think Jesus is on one side whilst they are on the better side. That is, they think they represent someone superior (Jehovah) which places them over above the side of someone they call "inferior," that is, Jesus. This may well make them insensitive to how shocking it sounds to orthodox Christians when the Jehovah's Witnesses relegate Jesus to being "a god." However, most of their members have probably never felt free to do the kind of analysis I have done above.


Friday, 21 April 2023

When an Old Testament verse about Yahweh becomes a New Testament verse about Jesus

There are many astonishing instances where Hebrew Scripture verses about YHWH are turned into verses about Jesus in the Christian Scriptures. 

A small sample of examples follows. (And I’ve gone for a bunch of out of copyright translations for these six examples.) To give this a purpose, here I answer whether all application of texts about YHWH to the person of Jesus can be explained away as examples of an agent carrying out a task for a principal. Of course, there are situations where Jesus does act as his Father's agent to do something, as the 'agent' for the 'principal.' But that doesn't explain the extraordinary scriptures here.

So below, you'll see a Hebrew Scripture that is about the biblical God Yahweh (YHWH), where Christian Scripture then does that extraordinary thing, and says it's about Jesus.

Where I use the word 'ontology' below, I mean that Jesus is somehow identified with the very being of YHWH. 

 Here's the sample:


“for they shall not be ashamed that wait for me [YHWH].” (KJV Isaiah 49:23)

“For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him [Jesus] shall not be ashamed.” (KJV Rom. 10:11)

Interesting to note that Paul is not saying that Jesus is fulfilling an agency task. Paul is specifically stating that the scripture about YHWH is about Jesus. This is very clear indeed.

 

NEXT

“But let him that glorieth glory in this, that he understandeth and knoweth me, that I am the Lord [YHWH]…” (KJV Jeremiah 9:24)

“That, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord [Jesus].” (KJV 1Cor 1:31)

“But he that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord [Jesus].” (KJV 2 Cor 10:17)

Again, if of interest, Paul is not saying that Jesus is fulfilling an agency task. Paul is specifically saying that the scripture (“as it is written”) is actually about Jesus, where in the Hebrew text it says it is about YHWH.

 

NEXT

‘neither fear ye their fear, nor be afraid. Sanctify the Lord [YHWH] of hosts himself; and let him be your fear, and let him be your dread.’ (KJV Isaiah 8:12-13)

‘and be not afraid of their terror, neither be troubled; but sanctify in your hearts Christ as Lord... yet with meekness and fear’ (ASV 1 Peter 3:14-15)

This too is not about an agency task, but rather tends towards ritual meaning and ontological sameness, being about one towards whom the believer's heart is sanctified.

 

NEXT:

‘The table of the Lord [YHWH] is polluted; and the fruit thereof, even his meat, is contemptible.’ (KJV Malachi 1:7,12)

‘ye are not able of the table of the Lord [Jesus] to partake, and of the table of demons.’ (YLT 1 Corinthians 10:17,21)

This matching ritual presence of YHWH and Jesus would of course need a better explanation than agency, and tends towards ontology.

 

NEXT

‘O taste and see that the Lord [YHWH] is good’ (KJV Psalm 34:8)

‘ye have tasted, that the Lord [Jesus] is sweet’ (Wycliffe 1 Peter 2:3)

Again, if I may make the same point, this is not about an agency task. It needs another explanation. It is devotional material. The weight of applying to Jesus this and similar material about YHWH tends towards ontology.

 

NEXT

‘those seven; they are the eyes of the Lord [YHWH], which run to and fro through the whole earth.’ (KJV Zechariah 4:10)

‘a Lamb [Jesus] as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth.’ (KJV Revelation 5:6)

There is something profoundly ontological in a shared way about YHWH and Jesus both being described as having seven eyes.

I could go on, but the point is made in these six examples. Not all of the application of texts about YHWH to the person of Jesus can be explained away as examples of an agent carrying out a task for a principal.

Here's a different kind of example. In Hebrews 1:10, God the Father essentially calls Jesus 'YHWH' (if you cross-check the Old and New Testaments). God the Father says this to Jesus: “In the beginning, Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands." If God says it, Jesus did it. God said to Jesus, the heavens are the work of your hands. Jesus wasn't just an agent. God the Father gives Jesus the credit for creation. They are co-creators.

And here's the second thing. Hebrews 1:10-12 contains a citation from Psalm 102:25-27. When you cross-check, you see it's deliberate that the 'YHWH' of Psalm 102 is the 'Lord' of Hebrews 1:10. So, if you cross-check this with the Old Testament, you will see that it plainly means this: God the Father said to YHWH, the heavens are the work of your hands. Jesus is Jehovah-Jesus, or Yahweh-Jesus. 

Since it's God the Father who calls Jesus 'Yahweh,' this naming can't be explained away as Jesus being an agent. 

The obvious conclusion is that the New Testament authors are perfectly happy for us to conclude that in some way, Jesus is the embodiment of YHWH, Jesus is Yahweh in some real sense. 

 

Friday, 10 February 2023

The person of the Holy Spirit: personal pronouns and neuter gender?



The Holy Spirit and words in the neuter


Something I deal with briefly in my book on the Trinity is a rather strange objection to the Christian belief that the Holy Spirit is personal (to the point of being referred to as a person). I make the point in the book that God doesn't have an impersonal side. So what's the issue here?


This objection runs like this: "The word for 'spirit' in Greek - the word 'pneuma' - is neuter, it's not masculine or feminine, it's neuter, like an 'it,' and therefore the Holy Spirit cannot be a person."


As objections go, that is not a very good one. In New Testament Greek, there are lots of instances where words for human beings are in the neuter gender. (Greek is one of those languages where words have genders.) So neuter doesn't automatically mean non-person. Here are some Greek neuter nouns used for people, and where you can find them in the New Testament:

- gunaicharion = small woman (in 2 Timothy 3:6 referring to women old enough to be burdened with sins and led away by passions)

- brephos = baby (in Luke 1:41 - referring to John the Baptist; see also Luke 2:12 for brephos referring to Jesus; and 1 Peter 2:2 for brephos as an analogy for new Christians who are presumably adults)

- teknon = child (in Mark 2:5 applied to someone old enough to need forgiveness of his sins; and see similar in Galatians 4:19 referring to believers)

- teknion = little child (referring to the disciples in John 13:33; and used for believers in 1 John frequently)

- paidarion = small child (referring to the child with loaves and fishes in John 6:9)

- paidion = little child (referring to the disciples in John 21:5; to those sanctified as brothers in Christ in Hebrews 2:13) (also used to refer to Jesus, e.g. "the child grew and became strong, filled with wisdom. And the favour of God was upon him [him = auto = neuter pronoun]" in Luke 2:40)

That was a list of neuter words. The pattern there is that those words all refer to people who are small in size. That's why these words are called diminutives. (Diminutives are not exclusive to people. For instance, in later Greek, deltidion is a shorter piece of writing or a small book. And kunidion is a small dog or puppy. And ostarion is a small piece of bone. I could give more examples but you get the idea. So, that was diminutives.)

So now, those are all neuter nouns used for people. And Jesus and John the Baptist, like the Holy Spirit, are referred to with neuter nouns above. That's why, for example, in Luke 2:40, Jesus is referred to with the neuter pronoun 'auto,' having been referred to as 'paidion' (neuter noun), no doubt because he was small. This is where it says Jesus grew in wisdom. In a more figurative sense, at the last supper and after the resurrection. Jesus addresses his adult disciples with neuter nouns in John 13:33 (teknia) and John 21:5 (paidia), language reinforcing a teacher-pupil dynamic rather than size!

All of this blows out of the water the mistaken idea that a neuter noun can't refer to a person. 

(I could get really technical and get into the fact that the word 'gender' is actually just a variation on the word 'genre' and just means type or category, not a whole load of things that English speakers read into it! Here, gender is to do with classes of nouns. But it's not standardised. In languages, 'gender' is a linguistic category, not a biological one. So don't be surprised that the word 'person' is feminine in French, or that 'girl' is neuter in German, or that 'beard' is feminine in Spanish! And don't be too shocked, but the French word le vagin is masculine, while French slang word la pipe is feminine. Look them up if you want to know... Anyway, back to the subject...)

So the word for 'spirit' being a neuter word is neither here nor there. It's quite obvious in these instances that gender is a linguistic matter rather than a sexing matter. This is more than enough to caution against rushing to conclusions. And if you were to rashly press the idea that 'spirit' being neutral must actually mean something about the nature of 'spirit' like being impersonal, then you would even end up making out that God who is spirit has an impersonal side which would be weird! It is just nonsense.

From the neuter gender, you could try to argue that the Holy Spirit is of unknown gender if you like (why?), but you can't argue from it that the Holy Spirit is impersonal. Basically, the word pneuma (spirit) existed before the New Testament was even written, was neuter in linguistic gender, and nothing could be done about changing that. It was literally just the word for spirit. The likes of Paul could not very well change the national language of Greece. So, neuter it was. (Whereas the word for spirit is feminine in Hebrew. Hebrew only has two genders. But Greek does not assume greater importance than Hebrew just because it has the extra grammatical gender.) 

The evidence doesn't stop there. There's more on people being referred to with words in the neuter grammatical gender. Neuter adjectives and participles refer to people here too:

- ta mora = the foolish ones (1 Cor 1:27-28)

- ta asthene = the weak (ditto)

- ta ischura = the strong

- to elatton = 'the lesser one' (Hebrews 7:7)

- ta loipa = 'the remnant', may also be a reference to people (Rev 3:2)

These are not all diminutives, not based on the size of the people.

So, those are all neuter words used for people. So the idea that you can treat the neuter Greek word for 'spirit' as proof that the Holy Spirit is impersonal is baseless. One wonders why anyone would persist with this weak line of argument at all when there are obvious contra-indicators, which I come to below under 'The Holy Spirit speaks!' If someone wanted to hold the balance of argument in favour of an impersonal, non-personal, spirit, it would have to be on other grounds, rather than on grammatical gender. (And it wouldn't do to look to the Hebrew Scriptures for grammatical support for the idea, because there the corresponding word for spirit - ruach - is grammatically of the feminine gender!)



Personal pronouns and the Holy Spirit


The most obvious use of personal pronouns for the Holy Spirit is in the words 'me' and 'I', as spoken by the Holy Spirit in Acts 13. (See 'The Holy Spirit speaks!' at the bottom of this post.) But what else is going on?


Well, believe it or not, I've seen another objection to the personhood of the Holy Spirit, that the KJV translation says things such as "the Holy Spirit which..." and "the Holy Spirit that..." The objection runs like this: the KJV treats the spirit as a thing. not a person, saying 'which' and 'that' with it. 


But that objection is not well-informed. The words 'that' and 'which' are part of the antiquated English grammar that the KJV uses in relation to persons. Famously: "Our Father which art in heaven." One could also point to the personal use of 'which' in Genesis 13:5 or Galatians 6:1; and 'that' in Romans 3:12. 


I've also seen hot debate about the use of the English personal pronoun 'whom' in John 15:26: "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, WHOM the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things" (NASB). Believe it or not, I've seen an objection that this is making the Holy Spirit a person by the back door, with a cunning use of a personal pronoun with a neuter noun. However, compare a similar use by translators of a personal pronoun with a neuter word making perfect sense: "Behold! I and the children WHOM God has given me" (Hebrews 2:13, NASB) There is nothing wrong with this. 


The rather frustrating thing about this kind of discussion about pronouns is that it can obscure the subject at hand, the subject being what Jesus is telling us about the work of the Holy Spirit, not about mere pronouns. Indeed, what I'm talking about in this post is not whether the Holy Spirit is gendered, but whether the Holy Spirit is personal.


We can say more on John 15:26, but again with the caution that the purpose of the passage is about something much more amazing than pronouns. There, the word 'counsellor' (Greek 'parakletos') is a masculine noun, and the translators are justified, if they so which, in capturing that gender if it makes sense. The Greek pronoun 'ekeinos' is correspondingly masculine with 'counsellor.' Therefore eikenos can be translated ‘he,’ permitting the 'counsellor' to be a 'he.' This is not unreasonable. It shouldn't be ruled out on theological grounds just because we're talking about the Holy Spirit and some unorthodox groups ascribe a non-person status to the Holy Spirit. That sort of artificial theological rule shouldn't be allowed to automatically turn a 'counsellor' into an 'it.'


'Counsellor' and 'Spirit' are both important nouns here, referring to one and the same person. The less important thing is that they happen to have different grammatical genders. The more important thing is Jesus' revelation that the Spirit is a comforter, a counsellor, like himself. He is giving important information to improve his disciples' understanding of the interpersonal qualities of the Spirit. He is not trying to regress their understanding of the Spirit into a vague force, he is trying to progress their understanding of the Spirit as being a counsellor. If our two nouns give the translator a choice, and one grammatical gender - masculine or neuter - has to take precedence over the other for a translation, how do you decide which one has priority? 'He' or 'it'? Given how Jesus is improving their understanding of the interpersonal Spirit, this is much better conveyed by letting the more personal-sounding noun take precedence. That is, the gender of comforter (masculine) is more informative than the gender of spirit (neuter) in relation to Jesus' message. It would be strange, at the exact moment where Jesus is revealing how interpersonal the Spirit is, to insist on a more impersonal-sounding word to convey the moment. He is trying to advance our understanding of the Holy Spirit, not set it back.


A translator could render eikenos as 'that one' but not making such good English. And English translators should aim at good English as far as is reasonable. This choice of English affects how the rest of the sentence is translated. I don’t expect good translators to flit between ‘he’ (counsellor) and ‘it’ (Spirit) when speaking of the same subject in the same sentence. The genders of the words are functions of a language with gender specific nouns and pronouns. This has to make readable sense in translation in English. The sentence subject, ‘counsellor’, is busy, and both ‘teaches’ and ‘reminds’. It’s all very personal sounding stuff. Taken together the translator has enough to make a judgment that the text merits retaining the masculine sense provided by the masculine ‘counsellor’ here. And so harmonising the grammar of the sentence in English makes sense, rather than flitting between 'he' and 'it.' Remember that in Greek gender is a thing of the grammatical form of a word, not the sex of a thing represented by that word. Thus, in John 15:26: "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, WHOM the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things" (NASB). Whether a translator thinks a personal pronoun is or isn't the better choice, the main thing to remember is that the passage does not exist to teach pronouns! It exists to tell us about the counsellor.

 

So that's enough for that. We should want to be filled with the Holy Spirit. The real question as far as I can see, when I see 'anti-personal' straws being clutched, is why are some people so eager for the Holy Spirit not to be personal? It seems rather odd. The Holy Spirit is intrinsic to God, and God doesn't have an impersonal side. A question to those who disagree: do you think the Spirit of the Father is impersonal, that the Father has an impersonal side, and the Father wants you to be filled with something impersonal? (More on that in my book as I say.)


Personification

The evidence is strong. But people can be rather fixed in their views. So... against the evidence, I've heard this objection: 'When the holy spirit does or says something, that is just poetic personification, not an actual person.' That theory needs more unpicking. 

Let me explain what we mean by 'personification' for those who may be unfamiliar with the term. An example will help. Let's say I write: "The little girl on her birthday got on the ferry boat. It danced out of the harbour, skipping on the waves and tooting merrily."

Boats don't really dance and skip or do anything 'merrily'. There is personification going on here of an impersonal boat. What does it stand in for? The things attributed to the boat actually stand in for the happy emotions of the little girl on her birthday. What does it mean? The meaning is simply that the girl is excited. (But the poetry helps give this simple meaning more vitality.)

It's hard to see how mention of the Holy Spirit is an example of mere 'personification' in the following verse (and there are many such verses), This is where the Holy Spirit intercedes in Romans 8:26: 'In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans.'

There, the Holy Spirit 'pleads' for us, or 'intercedes' for us. In an unforced reading, the Holy Spirit is plainly personal to be doing this.

Can any claim that this is merely 'personification' of the Holy Spirit be sustained? The requirement upon such a claim is to demonstrate persuasively what reality such 'personification' meaningfully stands in for. That's a hard test for the theory to pass.

Similarly, in Acts 13:2, the Holy Spirit says: "Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them.” The Holy Spirit, the one saying 'me' and 'I,' is making a statement about what he really does in the real world. A person speaks like that. Again, you can't abandon that merely by tossing in the word 'personification,' without explaining what reality such 'personification' meaningfully stands in for. Another hard test for the theory to pass.



Can a force be a person?


Another (!) objection to the personhood of the Holy Spirit is rather trite. It goes like this: 'the Bible describes the holy spirit as power which is a force, so it is not a person.' Needless to say, one could make the same empty argument against the personhood of the Father and the Son. For instance:


Jesus is:

 

True Light (John 1:9)

Power of God (1 Cor. 1:24)

Rock (1 Cor. 10:4)

True Bread (John 6:32)

Gate (John 10:9)

Capstone (Acts 4:11; 1 Pet. 2:7)

 

God is:

 

Light (Psalm 27:1)

A Consuming Fire (Hebrews 12:29)

Fortress (Psalm 91:2)

Shield (Psalm 18:30)

Cornerstone (Psalm 118:22)

My Cup (Psalm 16:5)


Is that grounds to claim that the Father is not a person, or Jesus is not a person. Simply not. So the argument is groundless, and the complaints against the Holy Spirit's personhood become even weaker, and one wonders what the purpose of them is. 



Articles and the anarthrous Holy Spirit


Yes, there's more. Another objection to the personhood of the Holy Spirit I've seen goes like this: 'Translators themselves struggle: in John 20:22, there is no Greek article (thus, it's anarthrous) in front of 'holy spirit' so it should be translated as 'a holy spirit,' and translators are wrong to add 'the,' making 'the Holy Spirit.'


Again, that objection is a bit poor. The grammar of John 20:22 in regard to ‘holy spirit’ works the same way as the grammar of John 1:18 in regard to ‘god’.  In Greek, neither has the definite article, and neither is treated as an indefinite noun. In English idiom, they are ‘God’ and ‘the Holy Spirit’. The translations flow accordingly. Translators typically add ‘the’ for the benefit of the English reader: ‘receive the Holy Spirit’. This aids understanding. John 20:22 like Acts 2 shows us the same Holy Spirit being poured out into the church through Jesus, and that is compelling. It's not just any old holy spirit - it's that Holy Spirit, the one in that story. It is perfectly reasonable for translators to draw this out in the translation of John 20:22 for the reader as 'the Holy Spirit'. 


Other spirits and the Holy Spirit

Some groups, such as Jehovah's Witnesses have argued that neuter words are for impersonal things in Greek. But notably, there are other beings called spirits which are in the neuter gender. Therefore, if the Holy Spirit had to be in an inanimate/impersonal force, so would those other spirits. For example, the 'unclean spirit' of Mark 1:26 is of course referred to with the neuter word pneuma. This is where groups such as the Jehovah's Witnesses become obviously inconsistent, as these call such beings 'spirit creatures.' In other words, Jehovah's Witnesses don't apply the supposed grammatical principle to evil spirits (neuter), only to the Holy Spirit (neuter). The inconsistency is surely problematic.


The Holy Spirit speaks!


The fact is that there are parts of the Bible that don't even make sense unless we accept the Holy Spirit is personal. In Acts 8:29, the Spirit sending Philip over to the chariot uses these words: "Approach and join this chariot.". A person speaks like that. The identity of the Spirit is confirmed in 8:39 as the Spirit of the Lord.


In Acts 10:19, The Spirit speaks to Peter with these words: "Simon, three men are looking for you. So get up and go downstairs. Do not hesitate to go with them, for I have sent them." A person speaks like that.

 

In that quote, the Holy Spirit used the personal pronoun 'I' to refer to himself. 


As mentioned already, in the next quote, the Holy Spirit refers to himself with two personal pronouns, 'me' and 'I'. It's in Acts 13:2: "Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them.” 


The Holy Spirit there is making a statement about what he really does in the real world. A person speaks like that. If these are not the words of a person, then the book of Acts is highly misleading at these points!


One could add how Hebrews 3:7-9 has the Holy Spirit as the user of personal pronouns found in Psalm 95: 

'So, as the Holy Spirit says:  '... your fathers put me to the test and saw my works for forty years.' (The quote is from Psalm 95:7-11 where YHWH is the one specified as speaking, so Hebrews is equating the Holy Spirit with YHWH.)

There are a few places where the Holy Spirit is said to be the one speaking YHWH's words in the OT, such as Acts 28:25 referring back to Isaiah 6:9-10; and Hebrews 10:15-17 referring back to Jeremiah 31:33-34. 


The Holy Spirit dwells in a temple!

This post has been about pronouns and gender. But there are other reasons for recognising the Holy Spirit as personal too. Not least, we have compelling evidence where Paul speaks of a temple of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit has a temple. An impersonal force does not have a temple. A god has a temple. A temple is a god's house on earth. That's what a temple is for. The Holy Spirit has a temple, and dwells in it as God of that temple. If anyone thinks the Holy Spirit is impersonal, this is the strongest of contra-indicators.


This article has backed up my assertion that God does not have an impersonal side. In Scripture the Holy Spirit is demonstrably not impersonal. .The arguments for the Spirit being non-personal are nothing like as strong as the contra-indicators. The amount of slings and arrows aimed at the personhood of the Holy Spirit by some religious objectors is slightly bizarre. 

What kind of temptations did Jesus experience?

In Christian belief, Jesus could be tested. But he could not be enticed into sin, because nothing in him was susceptible to that. He could not be tempted in the way of anyone else by their own lusts. He could only be tested but not enticed. Here's the thing for this post: in English, it used to be the case that the ideas of both enticed and tested could be expressed along with the same English word 'tempted.' And Bible translation can become a bit traditional - some translators can be a bit slow to change things to keep up with how language develops. So over the centuries, Christians who were reading that Jesus was 'tempted' have got into confusion about what kind of tempting this is, thinking it means Jesus was being enticed when it means he was being tested. Let's do a short bible study to see what I mean. 


The eagle-eyed among you - depending what translation you read - may have noticed that the Letter of James has the two different uses of the English word 'tempt' in verses 1:2 with 1:13-14. Here, that old English word 'tempt' lends to the confusion. That is, as said, it had a wider range of meaning including 'to test' and to be tempted in the sense of being 'enticed' which helped to make 'tempt' a useful word for English Bible translation, even if it's become a bit confusing to us now. It uses the Greek word epeirasan (in various forms) which had more or less the same range of meanings, so 'tempt' could be used with the idea of trials and the idea of enticements which are two quite different ideas!


In James 1:2, the Greek word peirasmois is translated as 'temptations' in the old KJV but as 'trials' in the modern NRSV in the same place. (And peirasmon is used in James 1:12 in the same way, saying that one who has been in trials has been tested.)


The old KJV puts James 1:12-14 like this: 

"12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation [peirasmon]: for when he is tried [Greek word dokimos], he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man say when he is tempted [Greek word peirazomenos], I am tempted [peirazomai] of God: for God cannot be tempted [apeirastos] with evil, neither tempteth [peirazei] he any man: 14 But every man is tempted [Greek word peirazetai] when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed [Greek word deleazomenos]."

Here is a link to KJV chapter 1 with original spellings. 

Meanwhile, the NRSV here stops using trials (verse 2) and starts using temptations like the KJV (verses 12-14), so the NRSV says:


"12 Blessed is anyone who endures temptation. Such a one has stood the test and will receive the crown of life that the Lord has promised to those who love him. 13 No one, when tempted, should say, ‘I am being tempted by God’; for God cannot be tempted by evil and he himself tempts no one. 14 But one is tempted by one’s own desire, being lured and enticed by it."


So, unlike the consistent KJV, the NRSV translating the same root word for epeirasan has switched from saying 'trials' (v.2) to 'temptations' (v. 12-14). Confused? Well, again, in the days of the KJV translators (and in the Grrek),  'tempt' could be used with the idea of trials and the idea of enticements. The NRSV is trying to tease that apart by using the different words 'trials' and 'temptations.'


Unfortunately, when tempt lost the meaning of 'to test' in the English language, confusion did ensue, especially for those still reading the old KJV Bible. For instance, the KJV of Psalm 106:14 reads that Israel had “tempted God in the desert”. This is pretty much what James means in one place! Israel tested God's patience. God can be tested by any of us, and that is why people have to be told not to tempt God by the Bible. If it couldn't be done, then there would be no need to instruct us to desist from tempting God in the first place. You can see why something here has needed clearing up. 


Some writers snip James' message that 'God cannot be tempted' out of context. We're putting it back into context. This is what the Letter of James says when he means 'enticed':

 

"Let no one say when he is tempted, 'I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. But each one is tempted [Greek word peirazetai] when he is carried away and enticed [Greek word deleazomenos] by his own lust." James 1:13ff


James is making a distinction between one who can't possibly be "carried away and enticed by his own lust" and one who can. God is never carried away and enticed by his own lust, so James' argument, because God doesn't do lust. So God isn't tempted in that way. 


Jesus too is never carried away and enticed by his own lust, because Jesus doesn't do lust. 


On the basis that God could not be tempted (in the sense that goes with enticed), so too Jesus could not be tempted (enticed). And that's in the framework of James' working definition of temptation. What James says for God clearly goes for Jesus there: such lusts could not be attributed to either God the Father or Jesus, so neither could be enticed according to how James uses the word 'tempt' here. 

 

That then is where we arrive, when we follow the evidence of the Bible texts wherever they lead.

 

Jesus said in John 5:19, “The son can do nothing by himself; he can only do what he sees his Father doing.” So we must be circumspect in making the Son radically different from the Father in regard to temptation, because the Son could do only what he saw the Father do. The Son is inextricably bound in with the life of the Father.

 

What about the temptations of Jesus in the gospels? Satan may have been wasting his own time testing one who had no inner lust for power. But it was part of Jesus' redemptive purpose that he go through testing like us. But he could do only what he saw the Father doing. We must be clear about Jesus "who knew no sin" (2 Corinthians 5:21). Indeed "in him there is no sin." (1 John 3:3-5).

 

The Book of Hebrews operates that other working definition of 'tempt' which has nothing to do with being "carried away and enticed by his own lust." Hebrews says Jesus "in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin" (Hebrews 4:15). We know that Jesus could not be led astray "by his own lust." Hebrews is applying the word tempt to one who had no inner lust to entice him - unlike any of us. Clearly, Hebrews' definition of 'tempt' must mean temptations that have nothing to do with an inner lust, another kind of 'temptations' that are common to Jesus and us: that is, 'trials.' That is, here we have the meaning "to test." What Jesus experienced was every kind of testing, not enticement.

 

Jesus could be tempted in the sense of 'trials', the sense of the word used by Hebrews, in the sense in which God himself is tempted, according to the Bible, tested by his wayward subjects. Thus:

 

"Moses said to them, ‘Why do you contend with me? Why do you tempt the LORD?’" Exodus 17:2"

 

Clearly, Moses was operating a meaning of 'tempt' different from 'enticed.' This is about being tested.

 

Now. if Jesus was tested by the promptings of his flesh, this is still not being 'enticed' if there was no lust to carry him along. Only by taking on flesh can God experience the test of handling the promptings of the flesh. He has passed the test victoriously because the promptings of the flesh did not get mixed up with the catalyst of lust.

 

Summary: Jesus could not be enticed, because nothing in him was susceptible to that. He could only be tested - as with God the Father. Jesus had as much choice to sin as God the Father.

Friday, 21 October 2022

The pre-existent Jesus of Psalm 110

 

Some might be puzzled by the idea that Psalm 110:1 portrays a pre-existent Lord seated alongside God. Pre-existent? It is common enough to find Christians, reading the verse with the eyes of faith, claiming to see a divine Jesus next to God the Father. It is also common to see that claim to divinity challenged, usually on the grounds that rabbis traditionally hold to an interpretation based on the grammar of different Hebrew words being used for the two “Lords” of 110:1, and that such interpretation goes back to times before Jesus of Galilee. (See my post here.)

But if we focus too narrowly solely on questions of grammar and tradition, we can miss two very important questions: does Jesus in the gospels have a distinctive interpretation of the verse? And does his interpretation suggest anything noteworthy other than divinity? Before anyone scoffs, I would ask you to consider two very different books recently published by Oxford University Press, one by Robert Cargill and another by Matthew W. Bates, which have something to say about this. What we find is that Jesus interrupts the tradition. This is stuff that you won't find in David Hay's landmark 1970s book on the psalm.[1] (See my review of Hay’s book here.)

Here are some things gleaned from their books.

 

Robert Cargill

Jesus makes a riddle out of Psalm 110:1 in Mark 12:35-7. In so doing, Jesus gives voice to a game-changing view of Psalm 110. Before Jesus, it was perfectly possible to think of it as an anonymous psalm about David, or about someone like David, called “my Lord.” Whereas Jesus (like the Targums) gives us a different interpretation based on the idea of David speaking it, David being the author, speaking about a Lord of David.

That is the basis for the game-changing interpretation, which the scholar Robert Cargill regards as a “misinterpretation” by Jesus (which rather suggests that Cargill thinks that there ought to have been a fixed normative interpretation throughout the centuries, which seems doubtful).[2]

And Cargill means a distinctively Christian view developed that 110:1 is about “an otherworldly messiah,” who is not King David (nor his Jerusalem-based descendants).

It is a view building on this Jesus tradition that David himself was the author of the psalm. The Jesus tradition resulted in the interpretation that David could not possibly have been talking about himself. So, David himself in the psalm “must be referring to an expected divine messianic deliverer.” Jesus’ own view, according to Cargill, referring to Mark 12:35-37, is thus: “If David composed the psalm, and therefore could not possibly have been referring to himself, he must have been referring to a third party, which Jesus claims is the eschatological Messiah … [which] requires that the Messiah exist prior to David, thereby prohibiting him from being a “Son of David.”” (Cargill 82-830).

I’m not sure that Cargill is right that it requires a Messiah existing before David, but the Jesus tradition leaves the door open to that. It does at least point to a Messiah existing at the same time as the author David, and remaining with God from the time of David to the time of the start of the gospel narratives. This is startling.

You may well ask why it points to a figure alive from David’s century to the first century. Well, let’s start with this figure being alive at the time of David. Whoever the author of the psalm is, it is about someone alive in the author’s time: ‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand…”

There is no way that these words were intended to refer solely to someone who would only be born in the author’s vague future. That is, the subject of the psalm had already become David’s own Lord during David’s lifetime or earlier, which is a given if David wrote it. So for starters, this figure was alive in David’s century. But since this figure is now expected to visit as the Messiah, he has had an unusually long life.

That is the dramatic impact of viewing David as the author of the psalm, of viewing the “my Lord” as being alive both in David’s day and in gospel times, the view that Jesus gives voice to.

Surely the fertile soil for such thinking was already latent in the psalm, picturing someone who is surprisingly sat beside the divinity, who has a birth somehow unusual, and who is a priest “forever”: it is ripe for seeing the figure as somehow divine and alive in heaven for hundreds of years, at the very least, perhaps pre-existent before David. (Or at least living in a heavenly temporal status that bypassed our earthly concept of time).

Reading the psalm as written by David as the author, and reading the psalm as being about someone else with God living for hundreds of years, is one thing. It is also a reading coupled with another development, the divergence of equivalent terms in Greek and Hebrew - kyrios mou and adoni - away from each other: the divergence of the Greek Christian view of “kyrios mou” as being a divine being, splitting away from a Jewish Hebrew view of “adoni” as being a human being (Cargill 83-84). This linguistic divergence in how the word was read in Psalm 110:1 is crystallised on the Jewish side in the Masoretic Text which shows the vowels that turn the sacred consonantal Hebrew text ADNY to be pronounced as ‘adoni.’ And on the Christian side, the Old Greek version “kyrios mou” of 110:1 is crystallised as divine in a history of biblical commentary. See my post which explains the technicalities of this linguistic divergence in 110:1 here.

Cargill also looks at another possible divergence between Jewish and Christian interpretation in verse 110:3. Cargill argues that, without any corruption of the sacred consonantal text, the rabbis deliberately vowelised 110:3 so as to distinguish its meaning away from Christian interpretation, and the Masoretes preserved the rabbis’ efforts in the MT (84). Cargill’s argument rests on the lack of correspondence of multiple words in the ancient Old Greek translation of verse 3 compared to the later MT's vowelised reading, and posits that alternative vowel-pointing is sufficient to explain the alternatives explored by the Greek text. That is, the OG is faithful to an earlier pronunciation (and reading) of the Hebrew consonantal text of 110:3 as it may have been understood in pre-Christian times, which was ripe for a Christian “virgin birth” interpretation. But later the rabbis’ MT vowel-pointing conveniently steers away from that trajectory, cleverly to avoid mention of the womb, of the begetting of the Messiah (110:3), and of the eternal priesthood (110:4): all things that the OG permits but the vowelisation in the MT does not. For example, Hebrew consonants in 110:3 are capable of being read either as “the day of your power” or “the day of your birth” (85), depending on alternative vowelisations, so the room for rival interpretations is obvious. Using the OG as a guide, Cargill discards some of the MT vowelisation, and produces this translation of 110:3-4 directly from the Hebrew:

“With you is dominion on the day of your birth;
in my majesty, holy from the womb;
from the dawn, go forth because I have begotten you.
YHWH has sworn and will not change his mind:
“You are a priest forever according to
what I have spoken, my righteous king.”

This erases the name of Melchizedek (which is part of Cargill’s thesis) and gives us a priest-king, something alien to the time of David and the kings who followed him, but favourable to Christian interpretation.

Where is all this leading? As Jesus seems to read it, he seems to take it that David has already called Jesus “Lord.” And it follows thus: in Jesus’ reading, the seating at the right hand had already taken place when David said it. And it means Jesus has been Lord for centuries at least, from David’s time to gospel times; and as such it does not really fit so well to call this figure “son of David.” Jesus leaves the mystery hanging but lays fertile soil for the Christian account of this being a figure with an enigmatic begetting, an eternal existence, and an eternal priesthood, an “ancient of days” kind of figure.

Whereas it is generally thought that 110:3 is absent in New Testament interpretation, one is certainly tempted to look again to see whether there is in fact allusion to this constellation: “day of your birth… holy from the womb… from the dawn… I have begotten you”! Would that be why the discourse in Mark 12:35-37 drags the question of sonship into Psalm 110:1? That's a question for another time!

Cargill isn’t the only scholar to see what is latent in Jesus’ reading of the text as being authored by David and addressed to a pre-existent Lord Jesus alive at the time of David. He is one of two contemporary authors published by Oxford University Press thinking this way. It’s worth saying that neither Cargill nor Matthew Bates cite each other’s work in the two books I am referencing here. They appear to have come to overlapping conclusions independently.

 

Matthew W. Bates

So, it's not just Cargill who explores this trajectory. Matthew W. Bates looks at Jesus’ reading of Psalm 110 as consistent with an early Christian technique of gleaning from the Hebrew Scriptures any texts that can be read as “theo-drama,” in which one of the characters in an Old Testament narrative gets interpreted as being Jesus.[3] This isn’t a new idea. Irenaeus, for example, definitely read passages in Hebrew Scripture that way. (See, for example, 48-49 in Irenaeus’ On the Apostolic Preaching.[4] See Bates, 70-71 on this.)

These are what Bates calls “divine dialogues” in the Old Testament and one of the parts in it is attributed to Jesus. Psalm 110 is one of those that Bates reviews. (Others in the same chapter, which covers the theme of pre-existence, include Psalm 2:5-9; Isaiah 55:3 with Psalm 16:10; and Isaiah 42:1.) In this Psalm, Jesus is seen as having a silent part, with God the Father doing the talking (to Jesus). David as author and reciter plays the part of narrator as well as speaking God’s part.

Bates makes the point that when Jesus makes a riddle out of Psalm 110:1 (Mark 12:35-7), he is doing more than merely trying to catch his opponents out (Bates, 44). It has a deeper meaning than a gotcha. It relies on the Old Greek (LXX 109:1). It is about who YHWH/Kyrios is addressing, and why this person is called “my Lord.”

And Bates points out the crucial wider context of the controversies Jesus is dealing with.

First Jesus is asked what to do with a coin bearing the image of Caesar and presumably an inscription that translates as “Augustus Tiberius Caesar, son of the Divine Augustus.”

Second, in Mark 12:24-27 Jesus answers about the resurrection, and Jesus enigmatically declares that his Father is “not the God of the dead, but of the living,” such that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were still alive to God in Moses’ day (Bates, 46-48). Is there a gospel hint that Jesus is the Son of God who will live again?

Third, Jesus turns the tables and asks a question. Here comes his usage of Psalm 110:1. Again, it is important not to read it as if David were saying, as it were prophetically, “The Lord will say to my Lord.” It doesn’t say that. Rather, “The Lord [has already] said to my Lord.” Jesus presents this as a conundrum: if David had already said that to his Lord way back, then how are they waiting for a descendant, “a son of David,” now? Jesus calls on 110:1 to problematise the “son of David” idea, and creates a puzzle that his opponents are presumably stumped by, and he doesn’t tell them the solution. How will this son of David be living centuries after David has already called him Lord? What kind of life is this? And what bearing does this have on it: Abraham, Isaac and Jacob are still alive to God. Jesus is deliberately making heads spin. Abraham and sons are dead to men but still alive to God; and David’s Lord is still living from David’s day through to gospel times. Jesus sees something more unusual in Psalm 110:1 than simply the enthronement of a temporary Israelite king in Jerusalem. His reading is a radical departure from such a simple enthronement, because, Bates argues persuasively, we see Jesus portrayed “as speaking of his own preexistence and divine begottenness” (49-50).

To an extent, Bates’ reading depends on the assumption that Jesus in invoking part of the psalm is summoning the whole of it to the listener’s mind (just like hearing a snatch of a pop song we know by memory can bring the rest of the song flooding into our consciousness). There is evidence of this sort of thing (53 n.23). So, by reciting the first line, Jesus will stir up the memory of the next lines too, and Jesus is implying that they would apply to himself just as much as the first line does (52). As Jesus has presented the first line as a riddle, his listeners would mentally reach for the following lines to solve the riddle (53). This includes 110:3 where the Old Greek, in the version known to Irenaeus, enables Jesus to be spoken of as begotten “before the morning star” (Irenaeus 48, On the Apostolic Preaching).

Moving on to 110:4, which is directly addressed in Hebrews (not in Jesus’ words), Bates notes that again David as the reciter plays the part of narrator and also speaks God’s part, while Jesus has the silent part (spoken to) (54-55). In this theo-drama with one part attributed to Christ, the eternal priesthood is given to the pre-existent Christ “before the dawn of time.” (Bates is blending 110:3 and 110:4 and taking his inspiration from the Old Greek, LXX 109, because the biblical authors also did.) Bates notes that the notion of something/someone existing before the creation of the world has examples in rabbinic and Second Temple Judaism (55).

In terms of this having a meaning from the time of David and a meaning from the time of Christ, it’s a bit complicated. We have “a theodramatic reported speech at the time of the enthronement harking back to an earlier theodramatic setting” (162-63). So we have theodramatic setting A and setting B. Bates: “The Father’s first speeches to the Son occurred sometimes earlier than these reports  - the reports look back to a much earlier time in the theodrama – the time before time, theodramatic setting “A”.” At that time, the Father spoke of then-present and future things (“you are a priest forever” and “I will make the nations your heritance” (167). And there is theodramatic setting B, the Son’s enthronement after the resurrection “at which time the Father speaks (e.g. “sit at my right hand…)… and at which time the reports of the earlier speeches are given” (167).

So from Jesus explicit use of 110:1 and implied use of the following verses, together with Hebrews’ use of 110:4, a picture of a pre-existent Christ emerges, a picture of which Christ is aware.

 

Conclusion

Of course, if Jesus indicates his pre-existence, this plays into discussion of his divinity. But of course, Jesus in the gospels enigmatically leaves the puzzle hanging. The important takeaway is to remember that discussion of whether Jesus is thought of as divine in Psalm 110:1 is not a discussion that can be settled by reference to Hebrew grammar and tradition, because Jesus’ words interrupt this tradition. He treats David as the author of the psalm, not the subject of it, and this has all sorts of consequences. Something to ponder on.



[1] David Hay, Glory at the Right Hand: Psalm 110 in Early Christianity. Atlanta: SBL, 1989. (SBL in 1989 took over the copyright from this 1973 Abingdon Press book.)

[2] Robert R. Cargill, Melchizedek, King of Sodom: How Scribes Invented the Biblical Priest-King. Oxford University Press, 2019.

[3] Matthew W. Bates, The Birth of the Trinity: Jesus, God, and Spirit in New Testament & Early Christian Interpretations of the Old Testament. Oxford University Press, 2015. For opposition to Bates on linguistic grounds, see Peter J. Gentry, “Psalm 110:3 and Retrieval Theology” in SBJT 25.3 (2021), 149-168.

[4] St Irenaeus of Lyon, On the Apostolic Preaching. Trans. John Behr. St Vladimir’s Seminary Press, Crestwood NY, 1997.

Monday, 19 September 2022

Book review – David M. Hay, Glory at the Right Hand: Psalm 110 in Early Christianity (SBL: Atlanta, 1989)

 

Why review a book that’s nearly 50 years old? (NB SBL in 1989 took over the copyright from this 1973 Abingdon Press book.) Answer: there’s not enough found online which is acknowledging this landmark book, the first monograph treatment of a vital text of early Christian writings: Psalm 110. In 50 years, it has not been surpassed. It is the go-to book on Psalm 110 for scholars. There is little I could say in negative criticism of it, and I will focus on things that I think readers of this blog will find of interest.

Here is the psalm in the ESV translation:


1 The Lord says to my Lord:

    “Sit at my right hand,

until I make your enemies your footstool.”

 

2 The Lord sends forth from Zion

    your mighty scepter.

    Rule in the midst of your enemies!

3 Your people will offer themselves freely

    on the day of your power,

    in holy garments;

from the womb of the morning,

    the dew of your youth will be yours.

4 The Lord has sworn

    and will not change his mind,

“You are a priest forever

    after the order of Melchizedek.”

 

5 The Lord is at your right hand;

    he will shatter kings on the day of his wrath.

6 He will execute judgment among the nations,

    filling them with corpses;

he will shatter chiefs

    over the wide earth.

7 He will drink from the brook by the way;

    therefore he will lift up his head.


By and large, only verses 1 and 4 are subjects of early Christian interpretation, especially verse 1. A key takeaway from Hay's book is that when early Christian writings (in the New Testament and more writings) use Psalm 110, it’s not to convey just a single meaning. For them, even just verse 1 was a platform for a diverse array of messages and meanings (Hay, page 17). As literary foundations go for some familiar Christian beliefs, this one has few peers. Christians are so familiar with the concept of Jesus seated at the right hand of God in heaven (not to mention him being a priest after the order of Melchizedek), that it can slip our minds that this psalm is the only significant pre-Christian Jewish literary basis for these beliefs (54). Hardly anything else in the Hebrew Scriptures gave early Christians the words to express this idea of Jesus seated as Lord in heaven. It can also slip our minds that prior to Justin Martyr, verses 1 and 4 are the only verses of the psalm that we can definitely spot in early Christian writings (17). Given how important the psalm was to early Christian writers, their inattention to the other verses of this psalm is one of the puzzles that Hay’s book considers. He also considers the problem of why a somewhat neglected psalm became of prime interest to early Christians, and that is where I will find some shortcomings in his conclusions.

But first, we must set aside Christian ideas for a moment to peer further back in time.

Chapter 1 covers Jewish tradition. Hay notes that any serious exegete even in pre-Christian times must have had problems to wrestle with: who particularly was Psalm 110 about? Seated at God’s right hand in what way? What is the divine begetting of verse 3 about? Why did they care about Melchizedek? Who wanted a non-Aaron priesthood (the implication of appealing to Melchizedek)? What about the fierce language of warring? However, there is precious little pre-Christian interpretation of it available to us to see (20-21), so it’s surprising that Christians made so much of it. Hay surveys what little pre-Christian material there is. Chief among what we have is how ancient Jewish translators interpreted this Hebrew psalm in their Old Greek translation. Hay’s survey also visits stronger and weaker claims for earlier non-Christian Jewish allusions to the psalm, from the Testament of Job, and Daniel 7:9-14, to IIQ Melchizedek from the Qumran caves (22-27). There is a helpful comparison of ideas in Hebrews and IIQ Melchizedek on page 152 n.99. Hay does not support the conclusion that Psalm 110 is in view in IIQ Melchizedek.

Anyway, when was this pre-Christian Psalm originally written? Just how ancient is it? The majority opinion is that it is very ancient. It’s older than the 6th century BCE exile of the Jews to Babylon. It’s as old as the era of the kings, known as the Davidic kings (19). This makes it the better part of 3,000 years old. And traditions in it could have older roots still. It’s not just that it seems to place its hero in a line of ‘priest-kings’ harking back to the pre-Moses, pre-Israel, figure of Melchizedek. (And the only other place he’s mentioned in the Hebrew Scriptures is in the Genesis 14 story.) Parts of the psalm that taste of something older seem anachronistic for the Davidic kings’ era, in that it has a one-man ‘priest-king,’ quite unlike the ancient narrative that David’s Israel had separated the role of king and high priest between two different people - the king and his priest - so is there a snippet here of an older tradition?[1] The psalm then is like a fusion of motifs from different eras (20). So this is not just a Davidic king, but also a type of the more ancient priest-king. What’s more, this mysterious priest-king is in some sense seated at the right hand of Israel’s God. Nowhere else in the Hebrew Bible does anyone get to sit at God’s right hand. This factor marks this psalm out as an outlier for sure. It’s a curious choice for early Christians to seize upon. We will see reasons for that.

Hay concludes that the psalm was probably originally written to legitimise a particular pre-exile human Davidic king, but who this might be is unknown. Meanwhile, pre-Christian Jewish interpretation springing from the book of Genesis subsequently branched out into speculation about a supernatural son of man, about Enoch and about a heavenly Melchizedek (33). The potential for overlapping thought is apparent, given that Melchizedek appears in Hebrew canon only in Genesis and Psalm 110.

Christian-era rabbinic interpretations are also surveyed by Hay (27-33). Although many in the Christian era assume it is obvious that it is a messianic psalm, this interpretation does not appear to have much of a trajectory in rabbinic thought prior to the second half of the third century CE, the best evidence for it being targumic, which is rather late compared to the earlier hint of messianism found in Jesus’ reading of it (see the synoptic gospels). So that brings us nicely to Christian readings next.

 

Chapter 2 covers early Christian interpretation of Psalm 110. The shape of the mass of evidence comes into view. Before Justin Martyr, there are plenty of Christian allusions to it, but not much actual quoting 110:1, either in full or part. That is, only in the synoptic gospels and Act 2:34-35, Hebrews 1:13, and (beyond the New Testament) in 1 Clement 36:5 and Barnabas 12:10, is any quoting found. The rest of the evidence base is allusions using just snatches of 110:1 (see 34-35). The synoptic gospels’ versions are close to the Old Greek text of Psalm 110:1 but not identical to it.

110:1 seems freely and loosely paraphrased at times (36), so much so that at times the author, e.g. Paul, envisions Jesus have an active part in overcoming “all” enemies such as death; whereas Hebrews envisions Jesus seemingly have a more passive phase until things are put under his feet for him (36).

Christian eschatology has a foundational word in 110:1: “until.” It gives Christian authors grounds to explain that the final coming of God’s kingdom has yet to be, and we live in the before, the until (36, 124). (It has been said elsewhere that the whole of New Testament eschatology hangs off this word “until” in 110:1.) It provides an “until” which Christians could reflect on in their attitude of waiting for Christ’s return.

Hay notes that Psalm 110:4 features in only one part of Christian Scripture, in Hebrews. I’ll come back to that.

Chapter 2 also has an interesting section on how elements of Psalm 110:1 filtered into the Christian imagination not always necessarily directly from reading the psalm but sometimes through secondary paths, such as songs or confessions or liturgies. So much so that we can’t always assume that a Christian was actually thinking of the psalm itself when they seem to be alluding to it. It was almost certainly a text found in ancient sheets of paper (none of them exist today) that we call “scripture testimony collections,” which Christian preachers and teachers memorised or literally carried around with them. Although none of these have survived, they would have included lots of snippets of Jewish Scripture in note form for ease of use. That’s thought to be one reason why similar clusters of Hebrew scriptures turn up in different writings.[2]

One effect is that trains of thought, Greek Christian thought, alluding to Psalm 110 spin off out of the context of the testimony collections or songs or liturgies in ways quite detached from the internal context of the psalm itself (38-39). On page 42 there is a very useful table of passages that hint at this development (39-43).

Pages 45-47 have invaluable tables listing all the early Christian passages prior (probably) to Justin Martyr which contain traces of 110:1, with revealing breakdowns. Of particular value to Hay’s study, 1101:1 contains three elements, a, b and c:

               a) The Lord said to my Lord,

b.                    b) "Sit at my right hand

c.                     c) until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.”

Hay identifies which elements of 110:1 figure in all the relevant passages. So for example, Mark 12:35-37 has the whole of it, that is, 110:1 a-c. Whereas Mark 14:62 has just part b, for example. Revealed by this exercise, we see that part b was of far more frequent interest than a and c to New Testament writers: this - “sit at my right hand.”

The subjection of powers to Christ – part c - was also of great interest to Christian authors. But only the gospels and Acts and Hebrews are interested in ‘a’ - ‘The Lord said to my Lord.’

The Pauline epistles feature b four times and c once. What comes across is that 110:1 was mainly valuable for Christians communicating with Christians, and only Acts 2:33-36 depicts an obvious appeal to outsiders based on the psalm. However, it may have other apologetic purposes which we will come to later.

There is a similar helpful table for quotes and allusions to Psalm 110:4 (46-47). But with Justin Martyr in the 2nd century, there is a significant change. He is the first Christian in the evidence trail to be interested in the whole Psalm (47). Hay takes us on a whistle-stop tour of Christian writers from Justin to Novatian (48-50). Their interest is as wide as that in Christian Scripture. It encompasses Christ’s status as “Lord,” his relationship to God the Father, identities of Christ’s enemies, hints of his pre-existent divinity in 110:3, and more.

 

Chapter 3 goes into more detailed analysis of what early Christian writers were actually doing with the psalm. But first, it usefully starts by contextualising the psalm as literature in an ancient near east background (52-53), where being at the right hand of God symbolises power, and sometimes divinity (58).

This brings us to the issue of Christian readings of the psalm as meaning that Jesus was himself divine. I was particularly interested in Hay’s background comment, “The evidence suggests that in the ancient Mediterranean world the literary or graphic representation of someone seated at the right hand of god was fairly common and that it signified divine honour and sometimes worldly authority and power. In Greece and Egypt it seems to have implied participation in divinity, although the ancients may have understood that the one at the right hand of a god was at best a subordinate deity.” (He gives various examples, 52-53.)

This seems to me something that should factor in discussion of the original range of meanings of Psalm 110:1 and of New Testament (and later) Christian readings of it. It makes plausible that Christians saw Jesus’ place at the Father’s right hand as a symbol of Jesus’ divinity.

However, Hay draws back from this and makes a series of ambiguous or seemingly conflicting comments throughout the book. This goes especially for his loose use of the word ‘divine.’

In terms of the second lord of 110:1 being a human or divine (or both statuses) person, Hay muddies the waters a little. At first he is clear: “like the MT, the OG suggests he is a human monarch in Jerusalem,” a “divinely exalted personage” (22). Emphatically, Hay says, “Neither the Hebrew original nor the OG would readily beget the notion that the second “lord” is divine” (106). (I think the operative word here is “readily.”) But ambiguously, Hay says that Jesus is exalted to “divine position and honor” (90). He also says, “Both Heb 1 and 1 Cor 15, then, connect references to Ps. 110.1 with the title “the Son” and both imply that the title connotes divine sonship” – that is, as “Son of God” (110, similarly 117). But Hay doesn’t say what he takes “divine sonship” to mean, while elsewhere he treats this divine status as something Jesus receives (145). He also speaks of “Jesus’ divine dignity” in Mark (114), but does not say what this means. My broader impression is that he thinks some New Testament authors regarded Jesus as absolutely divine, but that they didn’t directly use 110:1 as a proof of this, but they did happen to link 110:1 to other evidences where they did take Jesus to be divine. In his conclusions Hay says: “early Christian conceptions of Jesus’ heavenly glory at God’s right hand probably went beyond the limits of what most Jewish exegesis could tolerate just because these conceptions moved in the direction of affirming the full divinity of Christ.” This development is made explicit from Justin Martyr onwards (161), but I get the impression that Hay is saying the seeds of this are much earlier. He does think it will have increased the acceptability of exalted Christology to pagan ears pre-wired for “conceptions of divine persons seated to the right hand of gods” (161-2).

I hope I am not misunderstanding Hay. He possibly didn’t think it important to clarify what he means by “divine” or whether he uses it consistently. I’ll say more on this subject in my notes on chapter 4 below.

Crucially, as nothing else in Hebrew Scripture posits anyone seated at the right hand of God, Hay looks at other Jewish ideas with similar imagery, such as someone at the right hand of an earthly king. However, elsewhere, he notes that, in the Wisdom of Solomon, the Wisdom of God sits beside God, and the Logos comes from the royal throne in heaven (56). This is clearly unearthly, and not particularly human, but Hay thinks of Hebrew and Christian Scripture as positing a merely human Jesus on a heavenly throne insofar as what they take from Psalm 110. I’m a bit confused about what exactly he is saying on that subject.  

Hay makes the point that the Christian proclamation of Jesus at the right hand of God would have been meaningful for Jewish and pagan audiences (58). Turning to the New Testament passages where we find much of the evidence base, Hay starts with the theme of exaltation, and with Paul. In the undisputed letters of Paul, Psalm 110:1 is mainly a text about the future kingdom of Christ (59-62.) In the disputed Pauline letters, the usage is more to do with the power and majesty of Christ now (62-64).

Pages 64-80 discuss how the verse is used in the gospels and Acts to express the vindication both of Jesus and the gospel message. This extends into themes of the present glory of Christ in the New Testament and early Christian writings (80-85). Particular attention is given to Hebrews which treats Psalm 110 more expansively than anywhere else in Scripture (85-89).

On Hebrews, I was particularly fascinated by Hay’s comments on “Psalm 110.1 as a crucial foundation for the two-sanctuary reading adumbrated in verses like 4.14, 6.20, 7.26 and elaborated in chaps. 8-10” (87). The idea of parallel temple sanctuaries in Jerusalem and in heaven is always worthy of more attention, as it explains so much about various biblical narratives. Hay is notably interested in how Hebrews combines the ideas of priesthood and of being seated at the right hand of God in the story of Jesus.

Hay emphasises one of his key interpretations, that it is “a serious mistake to claim that early Christian references to Ps 110.1b regularly express convictions about Christ reigning as a royal lord in the present era” (91). That is, the tendency is more towards picturing Christ as honoured now, and ruling in the future. But being seated at the right hand is part of the narrative – the precondition - of the present-already arrival of the Holy Spirit upon the church (92). So the picture is complex.

Hay asks what is, to my mind, one of the more important questions, and one that has had too little thought: why did early Christian writers turn Psalm 110:1 from a relatively neglected text into a much-loved one? As Hay puts it, concerning Jesus being seated at the right hand, “what qualities in this symbol can have so endeared it to the church?” (91). I think Hay’s answers to this fundamental question are a tad under-developed. He suggests that the verse served a purpose of exalting Jesus without it being at the cost of the primacy of God the Father, which makes sense but at the level of ideas, with little practical effect drawn out (91)? It is, presumably, a purpose in worship settings. But this doesn’t seem to me enough to explain it becoming one of the most alluded to scriptures in earliest Christianity. Hay also considers that the motif of Christ at the right hand also energised church preaching (92). He again pays attention to the Christian idea that 110:1 exalts Jesus, as seen in Mark 16 and Ephesians (93, 98, 100).

I would go further than Hay and suggest that the motif helps to strengthen the group, and to engender loyalty to it, because Jesus’ enthronement is an assurance that the community has a good future. And embracing the motif in acts of worship, in rituals, could excite the community to feel, as well as think, this hope, which is vital in community. They are now, so to speak, a group with hope and a mission to fulfil. Group loyalty, a practical value, attaches to the theme in its association with baptism. Hay notes the connection of baptism with unity in Ephesians (97, 99). Hay, rightly I believe, says that “The hortatory settings of Rev 3.21; Heb 12.2, and Col 3.1 show that the SESSION promise was used largely to stimulate renunciation and devotion.” (100) This entails, as I understand it, devotion to Christ, and therefore loyalty to the group. There is a sense that this is also about the risen Christ’s present care for his followers. The value of care for each other would be an important value to stimulate in the group, although again Hay doesn’t really draw this out. He basically notes that the risen Christ acts on behalf of believers and intercedes for them from Hebrews and Romans (102). Thus Hay, borrowing from Niebuhr: “To say “Jesus is at the right hand of God” was akin to saying, “Now we’re safe no matter what happens.”” (108) This again fosters values of care and loyalty in my view. Hay also notes that Mark 12:35-37 functions to prove Jesus superiority to the scribes (113), which to my mind would serve to remind the church audience why they are loyal to the Jesus movement rather than to scribal authorities. I hope I have shown how Hay could have developed further his consideration of why early Christians attached such importance to this verse. There will be more to say on this.

 

Chapter 4 is about how 110:1 was mined for support in relation to the Christological titles Lord, Son of Man, Son of God, and Son of David. Hay trawls through Christian writings in and beyond Scripture. Naturally, attention is given to the Greek word kyrios in 110:1 in the Old Greek translation (‘Septuagint’) and in Christian texts. Acts 2:26 is explicit in joining these dots: it “proves the legitimacy of entitling Jesus kyrios” in an exalted sense (105). That is, it has an apologetic value for the practical purpose of preaching Christ’s lordship confidently.  Hay is at pains to say, however, that 110:1 was not the starting point for Christological use of kyrios (105-6). Such usage was also pre-Pauline (106). Hay later attributes it to Jesus as an authentic tradition.

So let’s come to Jesus’ use in the synoptic gospels, which is of special importance. Of interest to Hay is how 110:1 is positioned in relation to messianic ideas. It seems that in Hay’s perception of Jesus’ use of the verse, the second kyrios (“lord”)  is not divine and is not the messiah either, but is “lord” in some other sense which Jesus does not directly exegete. Psalm 110:1 does not use the term messiah, but it was read into it by some in Jesus’ day. I find Hay’s argument here (107) a bit confusing but messianism is a central matter in Christian discussion of the psalm so I will try my best. As part of his argument, Hay seems to read Mark 12.35-37 as being about the messianic title “Son of David,” not about the title “lord” although it appears here. Hay reads it as Jesus de-centering “lord,” to the effect of weakening the link between “my lord” and messianic ideas. That is to say, the person addressed by David as “lord” was not in fact the “Son of David” and as such not the messiah. That is how Jesus questions the link. This “lord” in 110:1 is perhaps the Messiah, but not necessarily. Confused? So, seemingly, Jesus neither affirms nor denies being the Messiah himself here, but simply is unpicking a contemporary argument about it. If Hay is right, then Jesus undermines the link between David’s “lord” and a human Messiah (David’s son), but perhaps (?) this leaves open the idea of a Messiah who is more than a human son – that only in some unique way can Jesus be both Son of David and David’s lord. Hay says: “Barn 12.10 argues directly from 110.1 that Jesus is the Son of God rather than the Son of David... In Mk 12.35-37 ... almost the same argument appears... Probably each of the synoptic versions of the argument is meant to imply that the Christ is the Son of God, but only Barnabas draws that conclusion openly.” (109) I wish Hay clarified what he himself here meant by “Son of God.”

On “Son of David,” Hay returns to Mk 12.35-37. Here he says that the arguments of this text “do not distinctly answer the question about the applicability of the title “Son of David” to the messiah” (110). Earlier, I thought Hay was being stronger on this, and saying that Jesus was breaking this link. But Hay now says: “Jesus taught that the psalm applied to the messiah” (111).

What I do find interesting is Hay’s interpretation that the messiah of 110:1 is superior to David because “the messiah’s rule will not be worldly or militaristic ... It may be inferred, then, that Jesus attached messianic meaning to the latter portions of the verse as well. The enthronement at God’s right hand must, for him, have been a transcendental event.” (111, see also 113) And “Jesus probably found in Ps 110.1b reference to a non-earthly enthronement of the messiah.” (111 n.26)

But “the particular answers, if any, which early Christians at this stage gave to the question “How is he David’s son?” cannot well be decided” (112). 

Apologies if I am confused as to what Hay is arguing.

For more of Hay’s analysis, see also the comparison of ideas in Hebrews and IIQ Melchizedek on page 152 n.99.

Hay sees Matthew as developing the passage in Mark to the point where “the mystery of the messiah’s nature is the mystery of his origin... the possibility that the Christ is the son of someone else ... the riddle implies that Jesus is David’s son and also another’s” (116-17). Hay, I think, is implying “Son of God.”

Hay also looks at how Barnabas and Hegesippus interpret Jesus’ debate.

Hay refers to the Hebrew adoni as underlying kyrios in the Greek of 110:1, accepting the Masoretic text without question (107 n.13). He does not open any discussion of how some Christians have departed from the Masoretic tradition and treated the Hebrew ADNY as meaning Adonai rather than adoni. Debate over the ‘correct’ vowelisation of the Hebrew text does not feature in the early Christian writings under discussion, and therefore not in Hay.

Hay also mentions Barnabas’ linking of 110:1 and the Son of Man title, in Barnabas 12:10

“”son of man” here means “merely a human being,” in flagrant contrast to the phrase’s sense in the gospels.” (108)

So Hay seems sure that the gospels treat Jesus as more than a human being insofar as their usage of the title “Son of Man” is concerned.  I was curious to see how Hay would handle the titles “lord,” “Son of Man,” “Son of David,” and “Son of God,” but I came away not quite knowing where the cards have fallen.

 

Chapter 5 is about how Psalm 110:1 is used – but not overly - in early Christian writings to describe how powers in earth and heaven are made subject to the rule of Christ, be that now or in the future. Hay numbers fifteen examples, spread across the New Testament and other writings in a useful table (123). In this spread of verses, powers subject to Christ include men and demons, evil men and evil powers, all men, spiritual powers including death and sin (125), all powers, including angels and authorities (127), and foes of Christ including the judges at his fateful trial (127-8). And church members (124). Time-wise, this subjection gets located variously in the past and present, or the parousia or the last judgment. This does a range of jobs for early Christian writers, describing Jesus’ enthronement in heaven, his glory, predicting his future vindication, or that he was already vindicated, that he is in heaven interceding, to argue that his sacrifice was perfect and that believers will be resurrected and that they ought to be faithful (123). Lots of meanings were wrapped together with Psalm 110:1.

The ways that church communities might have responded to hearing these meanings shouldn’t be over-simplified. It strikes me that a practical respect for authority and for a well-ordered community follows on from these images, and that is perhaps summed up in Hay saying that for church members, being subject would mean in obedience and worship (124-5).

This makes sense to me. If church community forms an alternative society, then it needs an alternative government with its own governor – Christ – to be respected ultimately by friend and foe.

Another response of sorts might be to feel a sense of security, and this could come from Paul linking 110:1 with the notion that “we are more than conquerors” (Romans 8:35-39) in the face of enemies including death (126-9). Indeed, Hay says that for the final part of 110:1 (“until I make your enemies a footstool under your feet”) “the primary interest motivating its usage lay ... in stressing the absoluteness of his exaltation and the utter security of those he willed to save” (129). This to me – but not drawn out by Hay - indicates a moral universe, and a community value of freedom from oppression, believing oneself to be saved and secure, and not only feeling this but acting accordingly in some kind of practical response that meant something in the community.

 

Chapter 6 focuses on how Psalm 110 was used in portraying Jesus acting as a priest in heaven and him interceding for believers. This can be tracked at many points in Christian Scripture from the synoptic gospels onwards. For example, In Romans 8:34, Jesus’ intercession suggests a priestly role that gives believers access to God (132), and it seems to me that a community value of care, of security, is embedded in this work of intercession.

Now, Psalm 110:4 – with its reference to a priest in the mould of the non-Aaronic order of Melchizedek - comes into view. The only New Testament text that explores this is Hebrews, but Hay first highlights earlier Jewish interest in the figure of Melchizedek as a priestly messiah figure, albeit not in reference to Psalm 110 itself (134-35). Texts briefly surveyed cover 1 Maccabees, the Testament of the Twelve Prophets, Philo, and, in the Dead Sea Scrolls, 1QSa 2 and 11Q Melchizedek which is a pre-Christian text of special interest, the Quran text seemingly portraying Melchizedek as a divine figure who will come with salvation in the end times (137). (Psalm 110 itself is curiously entirely absent from the Qumran texts, absent in itself and absent in any indisputable allusion. 138 n. 41.) Hay makes the important point that Hebrews makes light and scant use of the available Jewish traditions about Melchizedek and this may be a deliberate positioning, being mentioned to establish Jesus’ credentials, not to attach any great significance to Melchizedek himself. Hebrews is notably lacking in exotic speculation about this mysterious figure (153). If anything, it draws a line under speculation about Melchizedek and uses him to make the narrative about Jesus. (But of course is spikes our curiosity about the figure, perhaps unintentionally!)

Hay also surveys how this interest develops in rabbinic and Samaritan traditions (138-42), which includes possible rabbinic positioning to counter Christian claims (139).

So to Christian interpretation, both outside Hebrews (139-143) and in Hebrews (143-152). Hebrews seems to stand in opposition to other traditions about Melchizedek, positing him as merely a long gone earthly human and not a redeemer, rather than a heavenly redeemer as found elsewhere (143). From the themes that Hay highlights, I am struck that Psalm 110 now serves a community value of sanctity and purity. For, and this is the link, Jesus makes purification for sins and then is seated at the right hand of God in Hebrews 1:3 (143). And having stated these themes at the start of the letter, a good deal of development takes place.

 Hay misses further opportunities to draw out that the attraction of the psalm is underpinned by community values of authority, loyalty, purity and fairness when he comments – in light of a spread of verses - that the benefits of Jesus’ work flow to those who obey him, receive sanctification from him, and with an attitude of fairness because Jesus also suffered (145). Perhaps I am writing as if Hay should have been writing another book! But I do so to highlight that not enough attention is given to how such an erudite letter translated into community life. The value of loyalty is surely also implied in Jesus’ superiority to the Levitical priesthood (146-8). Certainly, Hebrews contains a plea for loyalty to the community, and thereby to Jesus, close to its finish, and Psalm 110 is part of the argument for this. Loyalty to the group is related to respect for the authority of its figurehead, Christ. This is implied in the biblical author’s belief that the psalm is personally addressed to Jesus and declares him to be priest forever.

So, the superiority of Jesus’ priestly work over that of the Levites is argued by the author of Hebrews on the basis of Psalm 110:4 (146-9). Hay here makes an important point. Hebrews assumes that the Mosaic law on which the Levites depend is older than the psalm, and the psalm supersedes it when it announces a non-Levite as a priest forever (149). This surely has an apologetic purpose for the Christian community, dealing with the lineage of Jesus. The Christians could not readily claim that he was both of the line of Judah and the line of Levi. And as they made quite a big deal about Jesus being of the line of Judah, any desire they had for Jesus to have a dual status as priest also needed an explanation. If they wanted a priestly Jesus, they needed Psalm 110:4. This is ideal as Psalm 110 seems to posit a ruler who was a Davidic king and a non-Levite priest combined in one person. In a culture where genealogy and the legitimacy of authority mattered, the community here had a handy apologetic. This should not be understated, for although it may not seem important for contemporary Western values, it was different for them. In this sense, Psalm 110 had an appeal to early Christian thinkers, a practical purpose in argumentation, in the same sense as Justin’s Dialogue with Trypho has a practical purpose. Christian use was possibly an apologist’s response to a polemic against an unqualified Jesus (149), a polemic that to the Christian writer was either a perceived threat or an opportunity to platform their views on what qualified Jesus.

It is obvious that to the author of Hebrews, Psalm 110 served an argumentative function. In their hands, it joins together ideas of priesthood with Jesus being seated in heaven, and it is the only scriptural proof it uses to argue that Jesus is in heaven (151). Psalm 110, with its claims about defeating foes, is also a basis for saying that Jesus’ sacrificial work is finished (unlike the priests) and perfect (151). The psalm is doing a lot of heavy lifting, but these were arguments that mattered for the overarching value of loyalty to the community. As such, we might suppose that the idea of Jesus as priest is not just a literary motif. 

 

Hay’s conclusions

Hay has surveyed how early Christian exegesis of Psalm 110 developed, and how each quote or allusion ought to be studied in terms of both its function as well as its literary context. There wasn’t a single trajectory of development so much as bursts of energy, generating fresh inferences in multiple directions, evidenced in the gospels, letters and non-canonical Christian writings (155-8). He reaffirms an early date for the commencement of these developments, which he puts in the pre-Pauline period (157). That is, sometime between the 30s and 50s of the first century. He thinks there is a core of authentic Jesus tradition here, but notes that early exegetes didn’t feel a need to use Jesus’ say-so to justify their interpretations (159). He sees it developing through the oral and textual mediation of church confessions, hymns and testimony collections, as well as from directly reading Psalm 110 (157). This could explain the narrowness of early interest in just a couple of verses rather than the whole psalm (158).

In summing up, Hay thinks the functions of early Christian interpretation fall into four categories: 1) Jesus sitting at the right hand of God; 2) support for Christological categories; 3) subjection of powers to Christ; and 4) Jesus’ heavenly priesthood. And all this chiefly to the end of emphasising Jesus’ status and glory (155). This categorisation speaks to me of how Hay has given less attention than he could to the problem of just why this neglected psalm became a treasured one, which is why my review here has suggested, for example, how the psalm resonated with community values. He does note its place in model Christian confessions of faith (155 n.1). It is worth saying that although the psalm had been somewhat neglected, prior Jewish messianic interpretation can be inferred, and may have stimulated its popularity among Christians (159). On my “just why,” my attention is drawn to Hay saying “vital religious needs” are “the primary reason for the psalm’s popularity among early Christians,” namely the best “proof-text” for justifying priestly Christology and Christian eschatology (159).

Hay recognises there is an issue: “The crucial and most complex problem concerning the psalm’s popularity is the question of why the SESSION image was so appealing.” He returns to his prime solution: “the image affirmed supreme exaltation  without calling into question the glory and sovereignty of God the Father. Jesus’ elevation was thereby defined in terms of unique proximity to God, and Father and Son were carefully distinguished. The phrase did not resolve the potential problems of ditheism or subordinationism, but it permitted Christians to confess faith in the absoluteness of Jesus before they had “solved” such issues” (159). Hay does not clarify what he means by absoluteness here.

Hay could have made something of the point that it is an “image,” a mental picture, which is a very human thing, a mental object for the worshipper, as an anthropologist might note. (Indeed, artists of much later centuries wrestled with how to paint the seated Christ of heavenly realms and his relation to earthly followers.) However, Hay anticipates the thought and pushes against its value, which surprises me:  “Some naive Christians may have imagined or visualized (cf Acts 7.55-56!) the risen Christ as literally (spatially) situated on a throne to the right of God the Father. Yet men accustomed to the dictum that “no one has ever seen God” will probably not have been guilty of crude anthropomorphism...” (160). However, “early Christians not only spoke but often thought in terms of the psalm’s wording and imagery,” and they could justify it from a conveniently concise bit of Scripture and thereby hold some distance from pagan parallels (160-1).

Indeed the conciseness of the verse, especially “at the right hand of its God” was in its favour for incorporation into diverse Christian uses (161).

My contention would remain that the most prevalent reason is not merely that it handily supported Christian ideas but that these interpretations helped to underpin values that promoted community cohesion for the church. 

Hay reminds us that the main point of mentioning subjection of powers in Christian scripture – which is usually vague on who, what and how – is to show the status of Christ, especially the glory of the risen Christ (156), even though he had been condemned as a political criminal (161). But the “fundamental factor” was the psalm’s use of picturing Christ as mediator between man and God (162). And Hay’s final conclusion is that for early Christians, the psalm allowed them to affirm Jewish Scripture and say that Jesus transcended Jewish expectations (162).

The book finishes with a helpful appendix reproducing snippets of Greek text where the psalm is quoted or alluded to, as well as a page index for his citations of ancient literature, and a page index for his references to modern authors. It would be nice to see a thorough list of manuscript witnesses to the text of the psalm, but such can be found in a recent study of 110:3: Peter J. Gentry, “Psalm 110:3 and Retrieval Theology” in SBJT 25.3 (2021), 149-168.

This book, as I said at the start, is the unsurpassed go-to monograph on Psalm 110. Surely it is time for another.



[1] Gerhard von Rad argues that the Psalm’s priest-king parallels Canaanite religion. Gerhard von Road, Genesis: A Commentary (London: SCM, 1972), 179f. Michael-Nazir Ali regards Melchizedek as a Canaanite. Michael Nazir-Ali, The Unique and Universal Christ: Jesus in a Plural World (Milton Keynes: Paternoster, 2008), 88-89. Robert Cargill follows Helen Jefferson and Harold Rowley in the view that Psalm 110 was originally a Canaanite enthronement psalm, adapted by the Hebrew royal court.. Robert R. Cargill. Melchizedek, king of Sodom: How the Scribes Invented the Biblical Priest-King (New York: Oxford University Press, 2019), 80. Hay does not make these points.

[2] A. M. Hunter, Paul and his Predecessors (London: SCM, 1961), 59-64, 143. For a recent survey of thought on this, see Alessandro Falcetta, “The Testimony Research of James Rendel Harris,” in Novum Testamentum, 2003 vol. 45, 280-299. This title refers to Harris’ books 1 and 2 of Testimonies, and his private correspondence, which laid the foundations of modern understanding of Christian collections of Old Testament passages which they took to be testimonies to the truth of what they said about Jesus. Psalm 110:1 must have featured in these testimony collections from early on.