In Christian belief, Jesus could be tested. But he could not be enticed into sin, because nothing in him was susceptible to that. He could not be tempted in the way of anyone else by their own lusts. He could only be tested but not enticed. Here's the thing for this post: in English, it used to be the case that the ideas of both enticed and tested could be expressed along with the same English word 'tempted.' And Bible translation can become a bit traditional - some translators can be a bit slow to change things to keep up with how language develops. So over the centuries, Christians who were reading that Jesus was 'tempted' have got into confusion about what kind of tempting this is, thinking it means Jesus was being enticed when it means he was being tested. Let's do a short bible study to see what I mean.
The eagle-eyed among you - depending what translation you read - may have noticed that the Letter of James has the two different uses of the English word 'tempt' in verses 1:2 with 1:13-14. Here, that old English word 'tempt' lends to the confusion. That is, as said, it had a wider range of meaning including 'to test' and to be tempted in the sense of being 'enticed' which helped to make 'tempt' a useful word for English Bible translation, even if it's become a bit confusing to us now. It uses the Greek word epeirasan (in various forms) which had more or less the same range of meanings, so 'tempt' could be used with the idea of trials and the idea of enticements which are two quite different ideas!
In James 1:2, the Greek word peirasmois is translated as 'temptations' in the old KJV but as 'trials' in the modern NRSV in the same place. (And peirasmon is used in James 1:12 in the same way, saying that one who has been in trials has been tested.)
The old KJV puts James 1:12-14 like this:
"12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation [peirasmon]: for when he is tried [Greek word dokimos], he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man say when he is tempted [Greek word peirazomenos], I am tempted [peirazomai] of God: for God cannot be tempted [apeirastos] with evil, neither tempteth [peirazei] he any man: 14 But every man is tempted [Greek word peirazetai] when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed [Greek word deleazomenos]."
Here is a link to KJV chapter 1 with original spellings.
Meanwhile, the NRSV here stops using trials (verse 2) and starts using temptations like the KJV (verses 12-14), so the NRSV says:
"12 Blessed is anyone who endures temptation. Such a one has stood the test and will receive the crown of life that the Lord has promised to those who love him. 13 No one, when tempted, should say, ‘I am being tempted by God’; for God cannot be tempted by evil and he himself tempts no one. 14 But one is tempted by one’s own desire, being lured and enticed by it."
So, unlike the consistent KJV, the NRSV translating the same root word for epeirasan has switched from saying 'trials' (v.2) to 'temptations' (v. 12-14). Confused? Well, again, in the days of the KJV translators (and in the Grrek), 'tempt' could be used with the idea of trials and the idea of enticements. The NRSV is trying to tease that apart by using the different words 'trials' and 'temptations.'
Unfortunately, when tempt lost the meaning of 'to test' in the English language, confusion did ensue, especially for those still reading the old KJV Bible. For instance, the KJV of Psalm 106:14 reads that Israel had “tempted God in the desert”. This is pretty much what James means in one place! Israel tested God's patience. God can be tested by any of us, and that is why people have to be told not to tempt God by the Bible. If it couldn't be done, then there would be no need to instruct us to desist from tempting God in the first place. You can see why something here has needed clearing up.
Some writers snip James' message that 'God cannot be tempted' out of context. We're putting it back into context. This is what the Letter of James says when he means 'enticed':
"Let no one say when he is tempted, 'I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. But each one is tempted [Greek word peirazetai] when he is carried away and enticed [Greek word deleazomenos] by his own lust." James 1:13ff
James is making a distinction between one who can't possibly be "carried away and enticed by his own lust" and one who can. God is never carried away and enticed by his own lust, so James' argument, because God doesn't do lust. So God isn't tempted in that way.
Jesus too is never carried away and enticed by his own lust, because Jesus doesn't do lust.
On the basis that God could not be tempted (in the sense that goes with enticed), so too Jesus could not be tempted (enticed). And that's in the framework of James' working definition of temptation. What James says for God clearly goes for Jesus there: such lusts could not be attributed to either God the Father or Jesus, so neither could be enticed according to how James uses the word 'tempt' here.
That then is where we arrive, when we follow the evidence of the Bible texts wherever they lead.
Jesus said in John 5:19, “The son can do nothing by himself; he can only do what he sees his Father doing.” So we must be circumspect in making the Son radically different from the Father in regard to temptation, because the Son could do only what he saw the Father do. The Son is inextricably bound in with the life of the Father.
What about the temptations of Jesus in the gospels? Satan may have been wasting his own time testing one who had no inner lust for power. But it was part of Jesus' redemptive purpose that he go through testing like us. But he could do only what he saw the Father doing. We must be clear about Jesus "who knew no sin" (2 Corinthians 5:21). Indeed "in him there is no sin." (1 John 3:3-5).
The Book of Hebrews operates that other working definition of 'tempt' which has nothing to do with being "carried away and enticed by his own lust." Hebrews says Jesus "in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin" (Hebrews 4:15). We know that Jesus could not be led astray "by his own lust." Hebrews is applying the word tempt to one who had no inner lust to entice him - unlike any of us. Clearly, Hebrews' definition of 'tempt' must mean temptations that have nothing to do with an inner lust, another kind of 'temptations' that are common to Jesus and us: that is, 'trials.' That is, here we have the meaning "to test." What Jesus experienced was every kind of testing, not enticement.
Jesus could be tempted in the sense of 'trials', the sense of the word used by Hebrews, in the sense in which God himself is tempted, according to the Bible, tested by his wayward subjects. Thus:
"Moses said to them, ‘Why do you contend with me? Why do you tempt the LORD?’" Exodus 17:2"
Clearly, Moses was operating a meaning of 'tempt' different from 'enticed.' This is about being tested.
Now. if Jesus was tested by the promptings of his flesh, this is still not being 'enticed' if there was no lust to carry him along. Only by taking on flesh can God experience the test of handling the promptings of the flesh. He has passed the test victoriously because the promptings of the flesh did not get mixed up with the catalyst of lust.
Summary: Jesus could not be enticed, because nothing in him was susceptible to that. He could only be tested - as with God the Father. Jesus had as much choice to sin as God the Father.
No comments:
Post a Comment